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crimeas [40]
3 years ago
12

Josh, an HR manager at RoxCom LLC, is responsible for implementing a guided self-appraisal system using management by objectives

in his organization. He has reviewed the job description and the key activities that constitute the employee’s job. Which of the following is typically the next step for Josh? Group of answer choices Development of performance standards Setting of objectives Continuing performance discussions Implementation of the standards
Business
1 answer:
Kaylis [27]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Continuing performance discussions.

Explanation:

Management by objectives in an organization can be described as the set of strategic actions that will help the company to achieve its objectives and goals.

This management means that management must adopt a system of control and planning where all the constituent members of the organization will work together to define the objectives of the company and then a system of individual goals will be adopted that will consequently assist in achieving the organizational objectives. .

So after implementing a system of guided self-assessment in the organization and reviewing the job description and the main activities that make up the employee's work, the next most appropriate step for Josh would be Discussions on ongoing performance, so that the monitoring and control that will assist in achieving business goals.

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J&J Foods wants to issue 5.4 percent preferred stock with a stated liquidating value of $100 a share. The company has determ
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

$65.85

Explanation:

Calculation for What should the offer price be

Using this formula

Offer price=(Preferred stock× Liquidating value)/Return

Let plug in the formula

Offer price = (0.054 × $100) / 0.082

Offer price=5.4/0.082

Offer price = $65.85

Therefore the offer price should be $65.85

3 0
2 years ago
At December 31, 2020 Bramble Corp. had 298000 shares of common stock and 9800 shares of 6%, $100 par value cumulative preferred
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

the earning per common share is $3.83 per share

Explanation:

The computation of the earning per common share is shown below

= Net income ÷ weighted number of outstanding shares

= $1,143,000 ÷ (298,000 shares)

= $3.83 per share

We simply divided the net income from the  weighted number of outstanding shares so that the earning per share could be determined

hence, the earning per common share is $3.83 per share

5 0
2 years ago
A sale transaction closes on April 15th. The day of closing belongs to the seller. Real estate taxes for the year, not yet bille
Rasek [7]

Answer:

$607

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Date of closing of sales transaction = April 15

Expected tax for the year = $2,110

Number of days in an year = 365

Now,

Per day tax = [ Expected tax for the year ] ÷ [ 365 ]

= $2,110 ÷ 365

= $5.781 per day

Time period from January 1 to April 15 in days = 105 days

Therefore,

The seller's share of the tax bill

= Per day tax × Time period from January 1 to April 15 in days

= $5.781 × 105

= $606.98 ≈ $607

6 0
2 years ago
"true or false: effective communication involves not only sending information but also receiving it."
goblinko [34]
True...........!!!!!!
4 0
3 years ago
What return do you expect earn if you buy the 3 years ,10% coupon bond today and sell it in exactly 1 year( if current price is
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

8.02%

Explanation:

Since corporate bonds pay coupons semiannually, it would be important to first all determine the semiannual yield to maturity of this bond using a financial calculator as shown below:

We need to set the calculator to its end mode before making the following inputs:

N=6(number of semiannual coupons in 3 years=3*2=6)

PMT=50(semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=1000*10%/2=50)

PV=-1051.45 (current price)

FV=1000(bond's face value)

CPT

I/Y=4.02%

After one year, there would 4 semiannual coupons left, we can compute the bond price as shown thus:

N=4

PMT=50

I/Y=4.02(without % sign)

FV=1000

CPT

PV=1,035.56

The expected rate of return over one year is computed thus:

N=2(number of semiannual coupons in 1 year holding period)

PMT=50(the amount of each semiannual coupon)

PV= -1051.45

FV=1,035.56(selling price after one year)

CPT=4.01%(on a semiannual basis)

annual rate of return=4.01%*2=8.02%

7 0
3 years ago
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