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Oksanka [162]
3 years ago
8

How many groups of sixty are in two hundred forty-four

Mathematics
2 answers:
Naya [18.7K]3 years ago
7 0
4 groups of 60 in 244 because 60x4 is 240. There is 4 left over.
ss7ja [257]3 years ago
6 0
The answer to this question is 4 groups.
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(50 POINTS AND BRAINLIEST) Show all work to multiply quantity 2 plus the square root of negative 25 end quantity times quantity
xeze [42]
The equation would be (3+√-16)(6-√-64)
A negative square root can not be a real number, meaning that we have to use the imaginary number.
(3+4i)(6-8i)
How to multiply imaginary numbers...
Treat this like an equation looking like (x-a)(y-b)
Use FOIL
(3+4i)(6-8i)
= 18-24i+24i-32i²
= 18-32i²    (i²= -1 because i= √-1)
= 18- (-32)
= 18 + 32
= 50
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Answer:

I think they are.

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3 years ago
What is the difference between the greatest and least amounts of rainfall
drek231 [11]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
4 years ago
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