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neonofarm [45]
3 years ago
14

Hypnosis is a state of human consciousness involving a heightened sense of focus and concentration while blocking out sources of

distraction. Researchers believe 80% of all people can be hypnotized. A random sample of 50 people showed that 42 of them were hypnotized successfully. Find the p-value and z-score to determine to show that 80% or more can be hypnotized.
a. p = 1.84, z = 0.71
b. p = 1.71, z =1.84
c. p = 0.71, z = 0.84
d. p = 0.76, z = 0.71
Mathematics
1 answer:
Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is c that’s the answer
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Please help!! I have less than an hour to turn this in!
valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

8 × 10¹

Step-by-step explanation:

don't panic. just breathe deeply and then think logically.

0.002 ... what is that ? 2 10ths ? 2 hundredths ? 2 thousandths ? 2 tenthousandths ?

the 3rd position after the decimal point is for 1/1000.

and that means 10^-3. in the same way as 1000 is 10³.

so, it is 2 × 10^-3.

the other rounded number is then 4 × 10⁴.

now, we are multiplying both numbers

2×10^-3 × 4×10⁴

what do we do ?

we combine the same types of factors, like the basic constants : 2×4 = 8

and 10^-3 × 10⁴.

what hairball when we multiply the same base number with exponents ? we add the exponents :

10^-3 × 10⁴ = 10¹ = 10

because -3 + 4 = 1

and so, the result is

8 × 10¹

7 0
2 years ago
In a football or soccer game, you have 22 players, from both teams, in the field. what is the probability of having at least any
Tamiku [17]

We can solve this problem using complementary events. Two events are said to be complementary if one negates the other, i.e. E and F are complementary if

E \cap F = \emptyset,\quad E \cup F = \Omega

where \Omega is the whole sample space.

This implies that

P(E) + P(F) = P(\Omega)=1 \implies P(E) = 1-P(F)

So, let's compute the probability that all 22 footballer were born on different days.

The first footballer can be born on any day, since we have no restrictions so far. Since we're using numbers from 1 to 365 to represent days, let's say that the first footballer was born on the day d_1.

The second footballer can be born on any other day, so he has 364 possible birthdays:

d_2 \in \{1,2,3,\ldots 365\} \setminus \{d_1\}

the probability for the first two footballers to be born on two different days is thus

1 \cdot \dfrac{364}{365} = \dfrac{364}{365}

Similarly, the third footballer can be born on any day, except d_1 and d_2:

d_3 \in \{1,2,3,\ldots 365\} \setminus \{d_1,d_2\}

so, the probability for the first three footballers to be born on three different days is

1 \cdot \dfrac{364}{365} \cdot \dfrac{363}{365}

And so on. With each new footballer we include, we have less and less options out of the 365 days, since more and more days will be already occupied by another footballer, and we can't have two players born on the same day.

The probability of all 22 footballers being born on 22 different days is thus

\dfrac{364\cdot 363 \cdot \ldots \cdot (365-21)}{365^{21}}

So, the probability that at least two footballers are born on the same day is

1-\dfrac{364\cdot 363 \cdot \ldots \cdot (365-21)}{365^{21}}

since the two events are complementary.

8 0
3 years ago
A new medical test has been designed to detect the presence of the mysterious brainlesserian disease. among those who have the d
Mumz [18]
Introduce the following notations of events:
A "The person has the disease"
B "The test is positive", C "the test is erroneous"
Our formula will be then:
P(A)=P(A!B)P(B)+P(A!C)P(C)\\\text{Using the given value we get the formula:}\\0.18=P(A!B)0.9+0.06\times0.1\\\text{Solving the above equation for P(A!B) we get:}\\P(AB):0.19
So the probability we are looking for is 0.19
8 0
4 years ago
Can y’all solve this please
Norma-Jean [14]

Answer:

it = my but lol

Step-by-step explanation:

lol sorry just trying to get points

8 0
3 years ago
Can someone please help me answer number 6!?! please!!
Fynjy0 [20]

Hello there! Your answers would be:

a. 600 - 75x = y

b. 8 months

Need an Explanation?:


Part a:

Okay, so she has 600 dollars, and she has a monthly bill, but no income. This means she is not earning any money, only loosing some.

This equation will model your situation: 600 - 75x = y

This is because:

  • The 600 remains constant, you are taking away from it. The 75 x represents the amount from the total taken away after each month.
  • Again, she does not earn money, only spends it on her bill.
  • Y represents the total amount of money she has left after each month.

Part b:

This is asking us to see how many months it'll take for her to have $0. The question is telling us to have g(x) = 0. (This is just another way of saying y = 0, which translates to her having no money left)

So, plug 0 into the equation in place of y and solve for x.

600 - 75x = 0

<em>Start by subtracting 600 from both sides to work to isolate x.</em>

-75x = -600

<em>Next, divide -600 by -75 to finish isolating x and get your answer. </em>

X = 8

This means it will be 8 months before her checking account reaches 0.

<em>So, these are your final answers. I hope this helps, and have a great day! Please don't hesitate to ask if you need more help with this specific question! </em>


8 0
3 years ago
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