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RSB [31]
3 years ago
13

Simone is a 26-year-old who lost her job as a copy editor for a local newspaper. She has spent the past few weeks out of work an

d interviewing for other editing jobs. She is thinking about going back to grad school if her job search doesn't succeed after a few more weeks.
Business
1 answer:
AlekseyPX3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Simone will be considered unemployed.

Explanation:

Simone is 26 years old, this means that she is in the adult population. She used to work as a copy editor for a newspaper. She has lost her job and is actively looking for work. She will be considered an unemployed person and will be included in the labor force.  

Those workers who do not have a job currently but are actively looking for one are considered unemployed. Those who are without jobs but are not actively looking for one are considered discouraged workers and are not included in the labor force. The labor force includes only employed and unemployed workers.

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What would be the amount of deposits D, given that the monetary base MB $750 billion, the required reserve rate (r) -0.1, the ex
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

$574.71 billion.

Explanation:

The formula for calculating amount of deposits is as follows:

D= \frac{1}{(C/D)+rr+(ER/D)}\times MB

where,

D = Deposits

rr = required reserve rate

ER/D = excess reserve rate

C/D = non-bank currency to deposits

D= \frac{1}{(1.2)+0.1+(0.005)}\times 750

D = 574.712644

D = 574.71

Therefore,  the amount of deposits is $574.71 billion.

4 0
3 years ago
The expected average rate of return for a proposed investment of $500,000 in a fixed asset, with a useful life of four years, st
Natalka [10]

Answer: 48%

Explanation:

Based on the information given, the average rate of return will be:

= (Average return) / (Average Investment) x 100

where, average return will be:

= ($240000 × 4)/4

= $240000

Then, annual averay rate of return will be:

= $240000/$500000 × 100

= 48%

6 0
3 years ago
The gross profit method of inventory valuation is invalid when a. A portion of the inventory is destroyed b. There is a substant
IgorC [24]

Answer:

d. Applying a blanket gross profit rate to merchandise that have wide varying rates of gross profit

Explanation:

To know what problem could arise fro mthis method, we must understand the method:

ending inventory = cost available for sales - sales x (1- gross profit)

being cost available for sales = beginning invnetory + purchases

a) if a portion of inventory is destroyed, then we subtract it from the cost available for sales and we should be okay.

b) the amount of purchase is being considered so it will not produce a distorsion

c) then beginning invnetory equals to zero in the formula of cost availalbe and we are also okay

d) here is the problem, if there is a wide array of gross profit we could do an average but it will lead to distorsion if the sales are not in the expected weight.

5 0
3 years ago
The Auto Group has 1,000 bonds outstanding that are selling for $980 each. The company also has 9,700 shares of preferred stock
DochEvi [55]

Answer:

The first thing that we need to do in this question is find the total capital of the Group. They get their capital from three sources which are bonds, preferred stock and common stock. We need to find the capital provided by each of these 3 sources and add them up. After that we will see what ratio of capital is provided by preferred stock, and this ratio will be the weight of preferred stock as it related to the firms weighted average cost of capital.

Bonds

1000*980=980,000

Preferred stock = 9700*85= 824,500

Common stock= 43,000*80= 3,440,000

980,000+824,500+3,440,000= 5,244,500

Preferred weight = 824,500/5,244,500= 0.157 = 15.7%

The weight of preferred stock is 15.7%

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Craig Company uses a predetermined overhead rate to assign overhead to jobs. Because Craig's production is machine intensive, ov
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

1. $14.4 per machine hour

2. $78,000 over-applied

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

1. Predetermined overhead rate = (Expected overhead for the year) ÷ (practical level of activity)

= $5,702,400  ÷ 396,000 machine hours

= $14.4

b. The overhead variance is

For computing the overhead variance, first we have to determine the applied overhead that is given below

= Actual machine hours × predetermined overhead rate

= 404,000 machine hours × $14.4

= $5,817,600

So, the overhead variance equals to

= Actual manufacturing overhead - actual overhead

= $5,739,600 - $5,817,600

= $78,000 over-applied

4 0
3 years ago
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