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Hoochie [10]
3 years ago
13

Why did the united stated and the soviet union embrace the idea of détente in the 1970's?

History
1 answer:
Ksenya-84 [330]3 years ago
7 0

Both nations were now equally capable of destroying each other. They also realized that their economy was dropping.

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“After the year 1500 there was no pepper to be had at calicut that was not dyed red with blood Voltaire 1756.”
mr_godi [17]

What this sentence that was made by Voltaire means is that the periods after the year 1500 was full of violence an a lot of blood shed.

<h3>What violence did Voltaire mention?</h3>

Voltaire used the speech to paint a picture of violence that could erupt in the human race. He was one of the enlightenment personalities that existed. He saw the many deficiencies that was existent in human nature. This was what made him to make such a speech.

Hence we can conclude that the meaning of this quote tells us that there would be violence and blood shed by using the the ways that the man made the speech.

Read more on Voltaire here: brainly.com/question/13331947

#SPJ1

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1 year ago
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3 years ago
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which of the following is not a reason why Western Europe Rose to become the dominant world force in the 15th century?
inessss [21]
The correct answer for this question is D.

Around this time, Feudalism WAS being used in this area, so that statement is false.
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What was the purpose of labor-saving devices?
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How is this the brainliest answer if it is wrong?

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