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2 years ago

8

Is there always an “invisible” 1 in front of every variable? I need this for a math assignment, thanks.

1 answer:

vivado [14]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

In front of every variable there is an invisible one which is being multiplied by the variable. This doesn't affect the variable because anything times one is still itself. The most common usage of the one is when combining like terms such as x+x. Since the equation is really 1x+1x, it would be 2x.

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The average body temperature of a lemming is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. The

rosijanka [135]

I’m doing this too hopefully someone answers quick cause I’m confused also.

6 0

2 years ago

I need help please! I've been stuck on this for a week and its really stressful lol

worty [1.4K]

Answer:

$y=0.2*4^{x}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Notice when x increases 1, y is 4 times the previous one, so

the function is like $y=C*4^{x}$

To determine the constant C, put any pair of (x, y)

Use x = 0, y = 0.2, so

0.2 = $C*4^{0}$ = C * 1 = C

then $y=0.2*4^{x}$

5 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

How do u write 32/100 in expanded form

laiz [17]

In expanded form or decimal form 32/100 is equal to 0.32 or 32% or if simplified the fraction is 8/25

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,

Mama L [17]

Answer:

$(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

$(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$n = 8$ --- 8 friends

$p = 15\%$ --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

$P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}$

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

$P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}$

$P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}$

$P(x = 0) = 0.85^8$

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

Solving (b): $P(x \ge 1)$

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

$P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1$

Rewrite as:

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)$

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725$

$P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

Solving (c): $P(x\le 2)$ --- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

We have:

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}$

$P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7$

$P(x = 1) = 0.3847$

$P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}$

$P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6$

$P(x = 2) = 0.2376$

So:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

4 0

2 years ago

The table and the graph each show a different relationship between the same two variables, x and y:

SCORPION-xisa [38]

When x=2 y = 110 which means when when x=1 y = 55
the graph would be 11*55 or 605
The table would be 280/4= 70 70*11=770
Which means the difference is 770-605=165

165 is ur answer

7 0

2 years ago