Answer:1/36
Step-by-step explanation:
11 12 13 14 15 16
21 22 23 24 25 26
31 32 33 34 35 36
41 42 43 44 45 46
51 52 53 54 55 56
61 61 63 64 65 66 <=only 1 with 2 sixes
Answer:
<em>Caca</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
NO SE
4.92.
4 is a whole number, so it goes in the ones place
The ths means it is going to be a decimal, so 92 goes two right of the decimal point. Hope this helped
Answer:
Attachment 1 :- x = 3/2
Attachment 2 :- m + r = 154°
Step-by-step explanation:
Attachment 1 :-

As the base 3 is same on both the sides , cancel the base 3 from both left & right side of eqn. After that we will get:-

Attachment 2 :-
PQR is a straight line . It's given that m + n = 110°
But we know that m + n + r = 180° ..............eqn.1
So substituting the value of m+n in eqn.1 gives :-
m+n+r = 180°
=> r + 110° = 180°
=> r = 180° - 110°
= 70°
It's also given that n+r = 96°
So putting the value of r in the above gives ,
n+r = 96°
=> n + 70° =96°
=> n = 96° - 70°
= 26°
Putting the value of n in eqn.1 gives
m + n = 110°
=> m + 26° = 110°
=> m = 110° - 26°
= 84°
So m + r = 84° + 70° = 154°
Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.