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SCORPION-xisa [38]
4 years ago
11

Classic Artists' Services signed a contract with a maintenance service company to maintain a building that Classic will use for

office purposes. The contract states that the work will begin work on February 1 and end on May 31. Classic Artists' will pay the maintenance service company $2,000 at the end of May. It accrues Maintenance Expense at the end of every month. What is the balance in the Accounts Payable account for amounts owed to the maintenance service company at the end of March?A) Debit balance of $2,000B) Credit balance of $1,000C) Debit balance of $1,000D) Credit balance of $2,000
Business
2 answers:
wolverine [178]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C. Credit Balance of $ 1,000

Explanation:

Classic Artists' Services at the time of making a contract with maintenance service company will not make any entry in financial statements as there is no services taken at the moment.

At the end of each month starting from February Classic Artists' Services will recognize an maintenance expense and a liability of accrued maintenance of $ 500 ($ 2,000 ÷ 4).

Entry will be:

Dr: Maintenance Expense     $ 500

Cr: Accrued Maintenance Payable     $ 500.

This entry will continue till May 31.

So the balance on account payable account in March will be $ 1,000 ($500 for Feb + $ 500 for March)

Eduardwww [97]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B) Credit balance of $1,000

Explanation:

When a company enjoys a service it is yet to pay for over time, the entries required at the end of each accounting period (months in this case) will be

Debit expense

Credit Accounts payable

As such, given that the maintenance service is to be provided to the company   from February 1 and end on May 31 (4 months)

Monthly expense = 1/4 * $2,000

= $500

Amount to have been accrued by end of March (2 months)

= 2 * $500

= $1,000

This will be a credit in the accounts payable.

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Take It All Away has a cost of equity of 11.17 percent, a pretax cost of debt of 5.32 percent, and a tax rate of 40 percent. The
frozen [14]

Answer:

WACC=(Ke*E+D*Kd)/(E+D)

Explanation:

Ke (Cost of Equtiy)=11.17%

Kd (Cost of Debt)=5.32%

E (Market value of Equity)=?

D(Market Value of Debt)=65

If D market value is 31% of Total Market value of company  so by grossing up D We get E+D=65/.31=210. So E=210-65=145

WACC=(Ke*E+D*Kd)/(E+D)

WACC=(11.17%*145+65*5.32%)/(145+65)

WACC=(16.2+3.5)/(210)

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3 years ago
In choosing between two investments, if one has the higher expected return but the other has the lower standard deviation, we us
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When we have an investment with a higher expected return and a higher standard deviation than another investment, we can then base our decision on the amount of risk that we incur per return of the investment.

This measure is called the coefficient of variation and it is calculated thus:

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This will then show you the risk incurred per unit of return. The investment with the lower coefficient is the better one.

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7 0
3 years ago
A hedge fund with $1 billion of assets charges a management fee of 2% and an incentive fee of 20% of returns over a money market
iren [92.7K]

Missing information:

a. −5%

b. 0

c. 5%

d. 10%

Answer:

a. only management fees = $20,000,000

b. only management fees = $20,000,000

c. only management fees = $20,000,000

d. $30,000,000 (management fees + $10 million incentive fee)

Explanation:

management fee 2%

incentive fee 20% of returns if total returns are over 5%

common fees for every situation (managers always win even if investors lose):

$1,000,000,000 x 2% = $20,000,000

a. −5% , no incentive fee

b. 0 , no incentive fee

c. 5%  , no incentive fee

d. 10%, incentive fee = (10% - 5%) x 20% x $1,000,000,000 = $10,000,000

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