Option C , Tim takes advantage of his grandmother's illness and persuades her to sign a will leaving all her property to him.
Explanation:
A individual who demonstrates excessive control may always be someone who has a special connection with the testator who has had the ability to render the testator vulnerable who affected by terms of danger, difficulty, manipulation.
Undue interference occurs mainly in areas of probate, trust and properties, power of attorney and custody.
Indecent influence is not usually a crime in itself, but it can be a means of committing a crime, including exploitation, fraud, domestic abuse and sexual assault.
Answer:
d. 2750 units
Explanation:
The break-even point occurs when the make option cost equals the buy option cost. The number of units 'x' needed in order for both options to yield the same costs is given by:
The break-even point is 2,750 units
Answer:
2 and 4
Explanation:
Japanese worker can produce 6 units of steel or 3 televisions per hour.
Korean worker can produce 8 units of steel or 2 televisions per hour.
Opportunity cost is the cost of the lost alternative. So when the country decides to produce only televisions it has to give up on steel production. Thus, the units of steel forgone for each unit of television gained is an opportunity cost of a television.
Thus,
Opportunity cost of television for Japan = 
Opportunity cost of television for Korea = 
The situation here is that the appraiser is:
- Taking a percentage for his services from the appraisal
Based on the given question, we can see than when an appraisal is made, the appraisal which is actually a written report that makes an estimate of the present value of a piece of property.
With this in mind, we can see that the appraiser preferred to take his payment from the percentage value of the <em>value of the property </em>which he appraised. This method is sure to give the appraiser more money than he would have made, especially if the value of the property was quite high.
Read more about appraisal reports here:
brainly.com/question/25088996
Answer:
43 days
Explanation:
The first step is to calculate the account receivable turnover
= $595,000/($80,000+$60,000)/2
= 595,000/140,000/2
= 595,000/70,000
= 8.5
Therefore the average collection period can be calculated as follows
= 365 /8.5
= 42.9
= 43 days
