Ask question

Ask question

All categories

4 years ago

11

How to do? I don't really understand this question

2 answers:

Bas_tet [7]4 years ago

4 0

If 35% of toms shirts are equal to 40% of jos shirts, then you just have to find the amount of 40% of jos shirts, which is 28, found by " 70/100 x 40 " so 35% of toms shirt is 28, to answer this question, you will only have to find 5% of toms shirt which is 4 " 28/35 x 5 " therefore, multiply 4 which is 5% of toms shirts with 20, which gives you 80 , and is the amount of shirts tom has, to get the final answer for this question, just subtract 80-70=10
10 is the answer

xz_007 [3.2K]4 years ago

4 0

10 is the answer . do you understand ^^^^

You might be interested in

4*(6-9)+[5+9](4^2-7)]

Lesechka [4]

Answer:Bruh

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

-2x+3-4x^2+11-15x+2x^2-15=?

9966 [12]

Answer:

$-2x^{2} -17x-1$

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Help me plzz!<br> Exponential word problems

slega [8]

Answer: (7)

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

4 years ago

2. Rich wrote a novel that sells for n dollars each. He received a bonus of $50,000 to sign the

Yuki888 [10]

The equation which represent total amount of income he earns from selling book is, $A=50000+\frac{109}{100}bn$

Since, Selling price of one novel is n dollars

So, selling price of b books is, $n*b=nb$

Since, he receives 9% commission on each book sale.

So, total commission he receives on selling of b books is,

$nb*\frac{9}{100}=\frac{9}{100}nb$

And also he received a bonus of $50,000 to sign the contract to write the book,

So, total amount of income he earns is represented by A,

$A=50000+bn+\frac{9}{100}bn\\\\A=50000+\frac{109}{100}bn$

Learn more:

brainly.com/question/7852218

3 0

2 years ago

1. Miguel is playing a game in which a box contains four chips with numbers written on them. Two of the chips have the number 1,

zzz [600]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that Miguel is playing a game

The box contains 4 chips, 2 with number 1, and other two differntly numbered as 3 and 5.

OUt of these 4, 2 chips are drawn

P(drawing same number) = 2C2/4C2 = $\frac{1}{6}$

Prob (drawing differnt numbers) = 1-1/6 = $\frac{5}{6}$

Hence prob of winning 2 dollars = $\frac{1}{6}$

Prob of losing 1 dollar = $\frac{5}{6}$

b) Expected value = sum of prob x amount won

= $\frac{1}{6}2+\frac{5}{6}(-1)=-\frac{1}{2}$

c) Miguel can expect to lose 1/2 dollars for every game he plays

d) If it is to be a fair game expected value =0

i.e. let the amount assigned be s

Then $\frac{1}{6}s-\frac{5}{6}=0\\s=5$

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers