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Basile [38]
4 years ago
10

Cotton On Ltd. currently has the following capital structure: Debt: $3,500,000 par value of outstanding bond that pays annually

10% coupon rate with an annual before-tax yield to maturity of 12%. The bond issue has face value of $1,000 and will mature in 20 years.
Business
1 answer:
jeka57 [31]4 years ago
6 0

Answer and Explanation:

This question is incomplete. Kindly find the incomplete question here

Ordinary shares: $5,500,000 book value of outstanding ordinary shares. Nominal value of each share is $100. The firm plan just paid a $8.50 dividend per share. The firm is maintaining 4% annual growth rate in dividends, which is expected to continue indefinitely.

Preferred shares: 45,000 outstanding preferred shares with face value of $100, paying fixed dividend rate of 12%

The firm's marginal tax rate is 30%.

Required:

a) Calculate the current price of the corporate bond?

b)Calculate the current price of the ordinary share if the average return of the shares in the same industry is 9%?

c) Calculate the current price of the preferred share if the average return of the shares in the same industry is 10%

The computation is shown below:

a. For the current price of the corporate bond

Before that first we have to determine the after tax yield to maturity i.e

After tax YTM = Before tax YTM × (1 - tax rate)

= 12% × ( 1 - 30%)

= 12% × (1 - 0.3)

= 12% × (0.7)

= 8.4%

Now

Price of bond = Interest × PVIFA(YTM%,n) + Redemption value × PVIF(YTM%,n)

Interest = 1000 × 10% = $100

YTM% = 8.4%

n = 20

PVIFA(YTM%,n) = [1 - (1 ÷ (1 + r)^n ÷ r ]

PVIFA(8.4%,20) = [1 - (1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^20 ÷ 8.4%]

= [1 - (1 ÷ (1 + 0.084)^20 ÷ 0.084]

= [1-(1 ÷ (1.084)^20 ÷ 0.084]

= [1 - 0.1993 ÷  0.084]

= 0.8007 ÷ 0.084

= 9.5327

PVIF(8.4%,20) = 1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^20

= 1 ÷ (1.084)^20

= 0.19926

So, the price of bond is

= $100 × 9.5327 + $1000 × 0.19926

= $953.27 + $199.26

= $1,152.52  

b)Price of stock = Dividend of next year ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate )

where,

Growth rate = 4%

Required rate of return = 9%

The Dividend of next year = Dividend paid  × (1 +  growth rate)

= 8.50 × (1 + 4%)

= 8.50 × (1 + 0.04)

= 8.50 × (1.04)

= $8.84

Thus the price of the stock is

= $8.84 ÷ (9% - 4%)

= $8.84 ÷ 5%

= $176.80  

c) Price of preference shares is

= Dividend ÷ Required rate of return

where,

Dividend = 100 × 12% = $12

And, the Required rate of return = 10%

So, the price of preference shares is

= 12 ÷ 10%

= $120

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Bronco Corporation discovered these errors in August of Year 3:
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Answer:

e. $4,500

Explanation:

Year            Depreciation overstated         Prepaid expense omitted

1                              $2,500                                $3,000

2                             $4,000                                $2,000

Year 2's net income = net income (year 2) + overstated depreciation (year 2) + omitted prepaid expenses (year 1) - omitted prepaid expenses (year 2) = $18,000 + $4,000 + $3,000 - $2,000 = $23,000

This means that year 2's net income was understated by $5,000.

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The adjustment on the retained earnings account should be $5,000 - $500 = $4,500

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The typical firm in a perfectly competitive market earns zero economic profit in the long run because: Select an answer and subm
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Answer:

c. there are no barriers preventing new firms from entering the market in the long run.

Explanation:

In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.

This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.

In a perfectly competitive market in long-run equilibrium, a long-run equilibrium avails firms the opportunity to adjust all inputs and all fixed costs are maximized. Also, it's characterized by free entry and exit, as such there isn't a fixed number of firms. This simply means that, since the number of firms in a long-run equilibrium can change, a firm must exit the market as a result of losses i.e when the firm is unable to cover its fixed costs in the long-run while new firms are allowed entry into the market when it anticipates potential profits or gains.

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In a nutshell, in the long run equilibrium P=MR=MC and P=AC.

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