Answer:
C. 4 times x squared plus 6 times x minus 3 minus 12 over the quantity 2 times x plus 1
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = 8x^3 + 16x^2 − 15
g(x) = 2x + 1.
f(x) / g(x) = (8x^3 + 16x^2 − 15) / (2x + 1)
Using long division
Answer:
1/4 <u>divided by</u> 1/3
1/3 <u>divided into</u> 1/4
<u>How many</u> 1/3 <u>are in</u> 1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
so y=5x on a graph is going to look like a 5/1 slope. X represents days and Y represents miles. So (1,5) means in 1 day Fran runs 5 miles.
Answer:
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
The true proportion of defects is 0.15
This means that 
Sample of 6:
This means that 
What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

In which




77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.