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3 years ago

Brainliest for whoever explains

Mathematics

2 answers:

lions [1.4K]3 years ago

8 0

The shape would be a rectangle.

When it says "base", it means the bottom/lowest shape.

The base is a rectangle therefore, the cross section parallel to the base would also be a rectangle.

makvit [3.9K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

A rectangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

The 2 ends of the rectangular prism are squares while the other 4 sides are rectangles. A cross section parallel to the base would be a rectangle as the base is a rectangle as well.

I hope this helps and if you can please mark brainliest.

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Find the coefficient of variation for each of the two sets of data, then compare the variation. Round results to one decimal pla

svp [43]

Here is the correct computation of the question given.

Find the coefficient of variation for each of the two sets of data, then compare the variation. Round results to one decimal place. Listed below are the systolic blood pressures (in mm Hg) for a sample of men aged 20-29 and for a sample of men aged 60-69.

Men aged 20-29: 117 122 129 118 131 123

Men aged 60-69: 130 153 141 125 164 139

Group of answer choices

Men aged 20-29: 4.8%

Men aged 60-69: 10.6%

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

Men aged 20-29: 4.4%

Men aged 60-69: 8.3%

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

Men aged 20-29: 4.6%

Men aged 60-69: 10.2 %

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

Men aged 20-29: 7.6%

Men aged 60-69: 4.7%

There is more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 20-29.

Answer:

(c)

Men aged 20-29: 4.6%

Men aged 60-69: 10.2 %

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given question:

The coefficient of variation can be determined by the relation:

$coefficient \ of \ variation = \dfrac{standard \ deviation}{mean}*100$

We will need to determine the coefficient of variation both men age 20 - 29 and men age 60 -69

To start with;

The coefficient of men age 20 -29

Let's first find the mean and standard deviation before we can do that ;

SO .

Mean = $\dfrac{\sum \limits^{n}_{i-1}x_i}{n}$

Mean = $\frac{117+122+129+118+131+123}{6}$

Mean = $\dfrac{740}{6}$

Mean = 123.33

Standard deviation $= \sqrt{\dfrac{\sum (x_i- \bar x)^2}{(n-1)} }$

Standard deviation = $\sqrt{\dfrac{(117-123.33)^2+(122-123.33)^2+...+(123-123.33)^2}{(6-1)} }$

Standard deviation = $\sqrt{\dfrac{161.3334}{5}}$

Standard deviation = $\sqrt{32.2667}$

Standard deviation = 5.68

The $coefficient \ of \ variation = \dfrac{standard \ deviation}{mean}*100$

$coefficient \ of \ variation = \dfrac{5.68}{123.33}*100$

Coefficient of variation = 4.6% for men age 20 -29

For men age 60-69 now;

Mean = $\dfrac{\sum \limits^{n}_{i-1}x_i}{n}$

Mean = $\frac{ 130 + 153 + 141 + 125 + 164 + 139}{6}$

Mean = $\dfrac{852}{6}$

Mean = 142

Standard deviation $= \sqrt{\dfrac{\sum (x_i- \bar x)^2}{(n-1)} }$

Standard deviation = $\sqrt{\dfrac{(130-142)^2+(153-142)^2+...+(139-142)^2}{(6-1)} }$

Standard deviation = $\sqrt{\dfrac{1048}{5}}$

Standard deviation = $\sqrt{209.6}$

Standard deviation = 14.48

The $coefficient \ of \ variation = \dfrac{standard \ deviation}{mean}*100$

$coefficient \ of \ variation = \dfrac{14.48}{142}*100$

Coefficient of variation = 10.2% for men age 60 - 69

Thus; Option C is correct.

Men aged 20-29: 4.6%

Men aged 60-69: 10.2 %

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

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