Using the binomial distribution, there is a 0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.
For each box, there are only two possible outcomes, either it has a prize, or it does not. The probability of a box having a prize is independent of any other box, hence, the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- She buys 5 boxes, hence

- 1 in 4 boxes has a prize, hence

The probability is:

Hence:



Then

0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377
A. 1/20 x 200
D.10
To figure out what 5% of 200 is, you would multiply 200 by .05.
To figure out if 1/20 of 200 is 10, simply divide 200 by 20.
Hope that helps!
Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
40
Step-by-step explanation:
so it is 2*10+ 4*5= 20+20 = 40
if my answer helps please mark as brainliest.
Answer: 297 i believe i am a little rusty at this