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o-na [289]
3 years ago
7

When recording Manufacturing Overhead, it is acceptable to use only one account (for both actual and applied) or to use two sepa

rate accounts. If you are using two separate accounts, when recording the application of overhead the credit should be to: Group of answer choices Manufacturing Overhead Applied Manufacturing Overhead Control Neither of these is correct.
Business
2 answers:
ZanzabumX [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Manufacturing Overhead Applied

Explanation:

The Credit is an entry of the Overheads Applied in the Production Process. Overheads Applied equal the Predetermined Overhead Rate multiplied by the Actual units of production.

The debit will be the Cash payment made on the overheads actually incurred during the Production Process.

The Balance of this Account is an Under or Overrecovery of Overheads used to adjust the Cost of Goods Sold or Other Inventory Items.

Andreyy893 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Yes, it is acceptable to use to use two separate accounts.

When recording the application of overhead the credit should be to: Manufacturing Overhead Control

Explanation:

For ease of accounting, a temporary account called manufacturing overhead control account is created. In this account, actual overhead costs are recorded on the debit side of the  while overhead costs applied to Work in Process using predetermined rates are recorded on the credit side of the account.

The data reported on the manufacturing overhead control within a period includes all indirect costs incurred during the production process they include salaries, etc.

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If the economy booms, RTF, Inc., stock is expected to return 9 percent. If the economy goes into a recessionary period, then RTF
ddd [48]

Answer:

    Variance = 5.44

Explanation:

The variance of a portfolio is a measure of the deviation of the returns of the assets making up the portfolio. Using the standard deviation, the variance can be worked out.

<em>Standard deviation is measure of the total risks of an investment. It measures the volatility in return of an investment as a result of both systematic and non-systematic risks.</em>

<em>Non-systematic risk includes risk that are unique to a company like poor management, legal suit against the company . </em>

<em>The variance would be determined as follows:</em>

Variance = Sum of  P×(R- r )^2  

P- probality

R- return on each asset

r- Expected return on portfolio

r =( Wa*Ra) + (Wb*Rb)

Expected return (r) = (9% × 0.68 ) + (4% × 0.32) = 7.4 %

Outcome                 R          (R- r )^2             P×(R- r )^2  

Recession              9              2.56                1.74

Boom                     4             11.56               <u>  3.70 </u>

Total                                                           <u>  5.44 </u>

Variance = Sum of  P×(R- r )^2  

    Variance = 5.44

8 0
3 years ago
Without trade, the farmer produced and consumed 2 pounds of pork and 4 pounds of tomatoes and the rancher produced and consumed
Elis [28]

Answer:

the farmer gained 6 hours worth of production and the rancher gained 8 hours worth of production.

Explanation:

                 Labor Hours to Make 1 lb. of        lbs. Produced in 24 Hours

                  Pork                  Tomatoes              Pork            Tomatoes

Farmer        6                            3                       4                       8

Rancher     4                            4                       6                      6

If both decide to specialize in producing only one good, the farmer will produce 8 pounds of tomatoes per day and the rancher will produce 6 pounds of pork per day.

This way when the rancher trades 4 pounds of pork in exchange for 6 pounds of tomatoes, he is gaining 2 pounds of pork which is equivalent to 8 labor hours.

When the rancher trades 6 pounds of tomatoes in exchange for 4 pounds of pork, he is gaining 2 pounds of tomatoes which is equivalent to 6 labor hours.

6 0
2 years ago
A bond issue with a face amount of $500,000 bears interest at the rate of 7%. The current market rate of interest is 6%. These b
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

More than $500,000.

Explanation:

In the case when the coupon rate is more than the market interest rate so the bond would be on premium

And, if the coupon rate is less than the market interest rate so the bond would be on discount

And if both are equal so it should be in par

Now in the given case, since the rate of interest is 7% and the market rate of interest is 6% so it would be on premium

That means the bond price would sell at more than $500,000

8 0
3 years ago
The Pioneer Company has provided the following account balances: Cash $38,000; Short-term investments $4,000; Accounts receivabl
mart [117]

Answer:

$48000

Explanation:

Given: Accounts payable $30,000;

         Accrued liabilities payable $4,000;

         Short-term notes payable $14,000.

Current Liability: It is a financial obligation of the company that need to be paid in a short period of time, within one year or within normal operating cycle.

Now, computing current liabilities from the given information.

Current liability= Account\ payable+ Accrued\ liabilities\ payable+ Short-term\ notes\ payable

⇒ Current liability=  \$ 30000+\$4000+\$ 14000

∴ Current liability=  $48000

Hence, Pioneer's total current liabilities is $48000.

6 0
3 years ago
Ginormous Oil entered into an agreement to purchase all of the outstanding shares of Slick Company for $60 per share. The number
irga5000 [103]

Answer:

C. $4.92 billion

Explanation:

Acquisition cost refers to the cost a company pays for assets such as shares or fixed assets like machinery. In this case, the company paid $60 * 82 million, being $4.92 Billion.

5 0
3 years ago
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