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Arte-miy333 [17]
3 years ago
8

Both the american revolution and the french revolution were partially because

History
2 answers:
antoniya [11.8K]3 years ago
6 0
The answer to your question is "unfair taxes"

Hope this helps! God bless and if it's ok I would really love brainiest
Tatiana [17]3 years ago
5 0
Both revolutions were due to extreme taxes. The American revolution caused by high British taxes, while the french was due to excessive taxing from the monarchs to the extreme poor.
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The argument has often been used to diminish the scale of slavery, reducing it to a crime committed by a few Southern planters, one that did not touch the rest of the United States. Slavery, the argument goes, was an inefficient system, and the labor of the enslaved was considered less productive than that of a free worker being paid a wage.

This sharp contrast between America’s lofty ideals, on the one hand, and the seemingly permanent second-class status of the Negroes, on the other, put the onus on the nation’s political elite to choose the nobility of their civic creed over the comfort of longstanding social arrangements. Ultimately they did so. Viewed from a historic and cross-national perspective, the legal and political transformation of American race relations since World War II represents a remarkable achievement, powerfully.

According to European colonial officials, the abundant land they had "discovered" in the Americas was useless without sufficient labor to exploit it. Slavery systems of labor exploitation were preferred, but neither European nor Native American sources proved adequate to the task.

Learn more about shaping America here:-brainly.com/question/19552107

#SPJ9

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