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Ilya [14]
3 years ago
11

A company identified the following estimated data in its two production departments. During the current month, Assembly used 200

direct labor hours and 300 machine hours and Finishing used 300 hours direct labor hours and 200 machine hours. If the company uses a departmental overhead rate based on machine hours, how much overhead cost is assigned to Finishing this month?
Business
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$9,000

Explanation:

1.Finishing’s departmental rate based on MH

= Finishing’s costs/Finishing’s machine hours

= $90,000/2,000 = $45 per MH

2.Cost assigned to Finishing based on MH

= Finishing’s departmental rate based on MH * Finishing’s currently used machine hours

= $45 per MH * 200 MH = $9,000

Therefore If the company uses a departmental overhead rate based on machine hours, $9,000 overhead cost will be assigned to Finishing this month

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the xyz block company purchased a new office computer and other depreciable computer hardware for $12,000. during the third year
Serhud [2]

Present worth is $7,944 ( Considering some assumptions )

Depreciation is the reduction in the value of asset due to wear and tear. Depreciation is charged only on fixed asset on a straight line or on a fixed rate per year.

Computer and other hardware of $12,000 to be depreciated over 5 years with no salvage value

<u>Depreciation </u><u>per year = ( Cost of Asset - Salvage value ) / Useful life </u>

= ($12,000 - $0) / 5 = $12,000/5 = $2,400 per year

It is assumed that the assets are donated at the end of third year and depreciation of that year is fully charged.

Depreciation for 3 years = $2,400 x 3 = $7,200

Now As all these event happened in the past and it is assumed that we are standing at the end of year 3, the present worth of the all these depreciation is actually the future value of these deduction because it was made earlier.

Present worth of depreciation is as follows

Present Worth = [$2,400 x (1+0.1)^2 ] + [$2,400 x (1+0.1)^1 ] + [$2,400 x (1+0.1)^0 ] = $2,904 + $2,640 + $2,400 = $7,944

Third deduction was made at the date when worth is being calculated.

read more about depreciation

brainly.com/question/1203926

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3 0
1 year ago
IE 9-3 ... AS/AD Model – Suppose this economy was momentarily at Full Employment, but has now experienced a continuation of the
11111nata11111 [884]

Suppose this economy was momentarily at Full Employment, but has now experienced a continuation of the RIGHT shifting AD caused by increased "G" spending . If the Price Level increases to $2.34, then Real Production GDP will have increased to $5200 b and 2 million people will have gained jobs. In the Business Cycle the economy will have moved from Point "x" toward Point y.

Explanation:

The AD-AS model (Aggregate production aggregate) demonstrates national income calculation and price level adjustments.

This shows how various events will change in two of our major macroeconomic indicators: Actual GDP and inflation.

  • Label all equilibrium in the axis, the interior
  • The positioning of LRAS provides important economic information, for example, if the efficiency of balance is on the left side of the LRAS, the economy is in recession.
4 0
3 years ago
Hushovd Iron Works has collected the following data for its Thunderbolt line of​ products: Direct materials standard 15 pounds p
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

The direct material quantity variance is $10,800 favourable.  (the options in the question are not correct).

Explanation:

The direct materials quantity variance represents a difference between what was actually produced and the standard or idea that should have been produced especially with regards to the use of direct materials.

To calculate material quantity variance

Step 1:Calculate the Standard Usage of Material

Formula= (Actual Units of Finished goods Purchased x Standard Price of Material per unit)

= 4,000 units x 15 Pounds

= 60,000 Pounds

This means the standard material usage is 60,000 pounds

Step 2: Now calculate the Direct Material Quantity Variance

Formula= (Standard Material Usage - Actual Material Usage) x The Standard Price per Unit of Material

= 60,000 pounds (computed in step 1) - 40,000 pounds (given in the question)

= 20,000 pounds x $0.54

=$10,800

Since the standard Material is higher than the actual material usage, it means that the answer is as follows;

The direct material quantity variance is $10,800 favourable.

Kindly note that the multiple options in the question above are for a different set of figures and a different question.

6 0
3 years ago
Fill in the missing amounts.
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

Find my analysis below

Explanation:

The gross profit rate is the portion of net sales earned as gross profit prior to considering operating expenses as indicated by the formula below:

gross profit rate=gross profit/net sales

The profit margin measures the net income as a percentage of net sales

profit margin=net income/net sales

                                Crane company Sheridan company

Sales revenue                 $94,200  $103,000  

sales returns and allowance  $14,000  $3,000  

Net sales                           $80,200  $100,000  

cost of goods sold                  $54,200  $50,000  

Gross profit                               $26,000  $50,000  

Operating expenses            $14,700  $34,400  

Net income                            $11,300  $15,600  

 

Gross profit rate=gross profit /net sales 32.4% 50.0%

Profit margin=net income/net sales         14.1% 15.6%

Crane company Sheridan company

Sales revenue                 94200 =F5+F4

sales returns and allowance  =E3-E5 3000

Net sales                       80200 100000

cost of goods sold              54200 =F5-F7

Gross profit                       =E5-E6 50000

Operating expenses        14700 =F7-F9

Net income                            =E7-E8 15600

 

Gross profit rate=gross profit /net sales =E7/E5 =F7/F5

Profit margin=net income/net sales =E9/E5 =F9/F5

7 0
3 years ago
You are a​ risk-averse investor who is considering investing in one of two economies. The expected return and volatility of all
galben [10]

Answer:

It's best to invest in the second economy

Explanation:

The question does not provide information on the hypothetical economic expectations of the two economies, but as a risk-averse investor, it's a better idea to try to "spread" the risk instead of concentrating it.

In the first economy, conditions might or might not be good. If they are good, returns will be extraordinary because all stocks will provide good returns, but if conditions take a turn for the worse, all stocks prices will fall and the financial consequences will be catastrophic.

In the second economy, results might never be as good as in the first economy, but they also will not ever be as bad. The risk is spread between various stocks, and while some may fall in price, others will rise, and viceversa. For a risk-adverse investor, this a far better option.

3 0
3 years ago
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