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QveST [7]
3 years ago
12

Janelle can walk 3 3/4 miles in 1 1/2 hours. at this rate how many miles can janelle walk in 4 hours

Mathematics
2 answers:
liberstina [14]3 years ago
8 0
Set up a ratio 3 3/4 = 15/4 and 1 1/2 = 3/2 so         
((15/4miles)  / (3/2hours)) = xmiles/4hours  solve for x
so x = 4hours*((15/4miles)/(3/2hours)) = x miles
the hours cancel and you are left with x miles = 10miles
natta225 [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 10 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use our knowledge in proportion to solve this question.

BUT first, we need to convert all our mixed numbers to improper fractions

3 3/4 = 15/3

1 1/2 = 3/2

We can now proceed to answer the question.

Let x = number of miles jane can work in 4 hours

Using proportions;

3 3/4 miles = 1 1/2 hours

x = 4 hours

To be able to make our x subject of formular, we need to cross multiply and then divide multiply bothside, but before the lets first replace our mixed numbers by the improper fractions

15/ 4 miles = 3/2 hours

x = 4 hours

we can now cross multiply

Then we have;

3/2 × x = 15/4 × 4

3x / 2 = 15 × 4/4

3x / 2 = 15

we wil now have to multiply 2/3 to bothside ofvtge equation to be able to make x stand alone.

Hence;

2/3 × 3/2 X = 15 × 2/3

x = 30/3

x = 10

Therefore Janelle can walk 10miles in 4 hours.

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Which number represents 50% of 74?<br> A. 35<br> B. 37<br> C. 38<br> D. 39
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

50% of 74 is 74/2

5 0
2 years ago
As reported in Trends in Television, the proportion of US households who have at least one VCR is 0.535. If 14 households are se
motikmotik

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.

For each household, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it has at least one VCR, or it does not. The probability of a household having at least one VCR is independent of any other household, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • 14 households, hence n = 14.
  • 0.535 probability of having at least one VCR, hence p = 0.535.

The probability of <u>at least 6 and no more than 8</u> is:

P(6 \leq X \leq 8) = P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 6) = C_{14,6}.(0.535)^{6}.(0.465)^{8} = 0.1539

P(X = 7) = C_{14,7}.(0.535)^{7}.(0.465)^{7} = 0.2024

P(X = 8) = C_{14,8}.(0.535)^{8}.(0.465)^{6} = 0.2038

Then:

P(6 \leq X \leq 8) = P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8) = 0.1539 + 0.2024 + 0.2038 = 0.5601

0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

8 0
2 years ago
PLEASE ANSWER!!! Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. Consider the function f(x) = 3x + 1 and the graph of the fu
kirill [66]

Answer:

The graph g(x) is translated 6 units down, and g(x)= 3x - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Originally the y intercept is at +1, in the graph you can see the y intercept changed to -5 (which moved downwards), therefore, the difference between +1 and -5 is 6. Putting it all together, g(x)= 3x - 5. 3x stays the same in both equations since it’s still the same slope. Good luck!

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression is equivalent to 60x^20y^24/30x^10y^12 brainly
Leno4ka [110]
(60/30)(x^20/x^10)(y^24/y^12)
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what would the area of an actual pool be if the scale from the drawing is 3 :1000 ,? will.mark brainest show work ty
Daniel [21]

Given the Scale of the Drawing as 3 : 1000

It means in the Drawing a Length of 3cm is Equal to 1000cm of the Actual Pool

It means in the Drawing a Length of 3cm is Equal to 10m of the Actual Pool

Given the Length of the Pool in the Drawing is 15cm

⇒ Actual Length of the Pool is 5 × 10m = 50m

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We know that Area of Rectangular Pool is Length × Width

⇒ Area of the Rectangular Pool = 50 × 25 = 1250m²

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