Answer:
D : All options are correct
Explanation:
- The marginal buyer is the essence of demand curve while marginal seller is essence of supply curve.
- @ Q = 500 units, Selling Price is set at SP = $35
- @ Q = 500 units, Buying Price is set at BP = $40
- Since, SP ≠ BP our equilibrium price would be $ 37.5 assuming the price elasticity of demand and supply are equal. In any case the equilibrium price would lie in between [ 35 , 40 ] such that to prevent a shortage of units in near future.
- Moreover, if the seller decides to sell at price $35 then he must sell goods greater than 500 units to reach the equilibrium profits. However, it could also lead to excess of units or surplus.
- We see that from selling the goods at SP = $35 while the buyer is willing to pay BP = $40 for 500 goods, the seller would be under-profiting and would be earning $5*500 = $2,500 less than he would at equilibrium price of $40 and selling units greater than 500. Hence, 500 goods is not an efficient quantity of goods.
Answer:
Translational equivalence
Explanation:
Translational equivalence -
It refers to the resemblance in the word in a particular language with its translation in other language , is referred to as translational equivalence .
The similarity can lead to any confusion or problem and hence , from the question ,
Claudia hires a translator of both the languages i.e. , english and spain , in order to avoid the problem of Translational equivalence .
Hence , the correct answer is Translational equivalence .
The amount of the salvage may be calculated using various equations. We are given that the sound tracker is retired about some time and this was initially bought at $41,000. However, we are given that the accumulated depreciation is also equal to $41,000.
Since the initial payment is similar to the accumulated depreciation hence, the salvage value is zero.
Answer:
As the price level rises, the purchasing power of households' real wealth will <u>fall</u>, causing the quantity of output demand to <u>fall.</u> This phenomenon is known as the <u>wealth</u> effect.
Additionally, as the price level rises, the impact on the domestic interest rate will cause the real value of the dollar to <u>rise</u> in foreign exchange markets. The number of domestic products purchased by foreign (exports) will therefore <u>fall</u>, and the number of foreign products purchases by domestic consumers and firms(imports) will <u>rise</u>.
Net exports will therefore <u>fall</u>, causing the quantity of domestic output demanded to <u>fall.</u> This phenomenon is known as the <u>exchange rate</u> effect.
The answer would be false because uniform would mean there is a standard and different organizations have different priorities
