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3 years ago

Ten times the sum of half a number x and 6 is 10

Mathematics

2 answers:

alexira [117]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

2x+x2=10

Step-by-step explanation:

Rashid [163]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

x×6=10

Step-by-step explanation:

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Please help. I’m confused

Simora [160]

Answer:

when x=6, y=30

when x=7.5, y=37.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Just plug in the value of x into the equation y=5x

so when x=6, the equation will be y=5(6). In this case y=30

when x =7.5, the equation will be y=5(7.5). So y=37.5

6 0

4 years ago

Lucy wants to be exempt from her semester exam. In order for that to happen, she has to average an 85 over 3 test grades. Her fi

anastassius [24]

Answer:

<em>Grades to be scored in 3rd exam = 88</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that average of 3 numbers is 85.

First two numbers are 81 and 86.

To find:

3rd number so that average is 85

Solution:

Let the third number = $x$

Formula for average is:

$Average = \dfrac{Sum\ of\ numbers}{Total\ count\ of\ numbers}$

Here, sum of numbers = $81+86+x =167+x$

Total count of numbers = 3

$85 = \dfrac{167+x}{3}\\\Rightarrow x=255-167\\\Rightarrow \bold{x=88}$

<em>Grades to be scored in 3rd exam = 88</em>

8 0

3 years ago

What is 7 please help me

irga5000 [103]

8/10 is the answer to this problem

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The median home value in Torrance is currently $750,900. Last Year the median home price in Torrance was 650,700. What is the pe

Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

15.40(approximately).

Step-by-step explanation:

The current price is $750900.

The last year the price was $650700.

Amount increase in the price is $(750900 - 650700) = $100200.

Hence the percentage is $\frac{100200}{650700} times 100$ = 15.40 (approximately).

5 0

4 years ago

Define a function f on a set of real numbers as follows: f(x) = 3x − 1 x , for each real number x ≠ 0 Prove that f is one-to-one

dalvyx [7]

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

$f(x)=\frac{3x-1}{x}$

For each real number $x\neq 0$

To prove that f is one -to-one.

Proof:Let $x_1$ and $x_2$ be any nonzero real numbers such that

$f(x_1)=f(x_2)$

By using the definition of f to rewrite the left hand side of this equation

$f(x_1)=\frac{3x_1-1}{x_1}$

Then, by using the definition of f to rewrite the right hand side of this equation of $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$

$f(x_2)=\frac{3x_2-1}{x_2}$

Equating the expression then we get

$\frac{3x_1-1}{x_1}=\frac{3x_2-1}{x_2}$

$3x_1x_2-x_2=3x_2x_1-x_1$

$3x_1x_2-3x_1x_2+x_1=x_2$

$x_1=x_2$

Therefore, f is one-to-one.

6 0

3 years ago