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murzikaleks [220]
2 years ago
13

Hugh tried to convince irene about how good a new business proposal was, but irene presented some good counter arguments and sta

lled the proposals
Business
1 answer:
vfiekz [6]2 years ago
3 0
By questioning the proposal done by Hugh, Irene showed the characteristic of being able to scrutinize properly certain things. This attitude is helpful especially when we are in doubt of the certain subject. By doing so, we can help those who proposed it to further do improvements on the certain subject. 
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A ten-year note is priced at par and has a (modified) duration of 7.8 years. A twenty-five year bond has a (modified) duration o
harina [27]

Answer:

Between 7.8 and 12 Years

Explanation:

The modified duration of a portfolio is defined as a weighted average in the modified duration of an individual bonds. Therefore it will lie between the extreme values of the modified duration of the bonds in portfolio so that the weights are all positive.

In the context, the modified duration lies between 7.8 years and 12 years as the modified duration would always lie between the lowest modified duration and the highest modified duration of any bonds in a portfolio. Therefore the weights are value that will lie between these two years.

6 0
3 years ago
A time standard was set as 0.20 hour per unit based on the 20th unit produced. Assume the task has a 60 percent learning curve.
Sliva [168]

Answer:

40th unit = 0.11 hr

80th unit = 0.06 hr

160th unit = 0.03 hr

Explanation:

Given :

$T_{20} = 0.2$

Learning rate = 60% = 0.6 (r)

Now using the learning curve equation,

$ T_n = T_1(n)^b$

where b is  $b= \frac{\ln r}{\ln 2} = \frac{\ln 0.6}{\ln 2} $  = -0.833

Now

$ T_{20} = T_1(20)^{-0.833}$

$ 0.20 = T_1 (0.0824)$

$T_1$ = 2.5

For 40th unit

$ T_{40} = 2.5(40)^{-0.833}$

      = 0.11 hrs

For 80th unit

$ T_{80} = 2.5(80)^{-0.833}$

      = 0.06 hrs

For 160th unit

$ T_{160} = 2.5(160)^{-0.833}$

        = 0.03 hr

6 0
2 years ago
The majority of 401 (k) plans are participant directed.<br> a)true<br> b) false
xxTIMURxx [149]

The plans regarding the contributions made to the 401(k) plans are directed by the participant, who is also known as an employee of the organization.

<h3>Who is a 401(k) plan?</h3>

A 401(k) can be referred to as a feature of a profit-sharing plan that enables the employees to make a partial contribution of their wages to their individual accounts.

An employee is referred to as a participant for the purpose of this plan. It is further to be noted that this plan is as per the voluntary directions of the participant.

Hence, it holds true that majority of the 401(k) plans are participant directed.

Learn more about 401(k) plans here:

brainly.com/question/3671553

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Wendy has a monopoly in the retailing of motor homes. She can sell five per week at $21,000 each. If she wants to sell six, she
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

The correct option is option d, $20,000.

Explanation:

As she has to sell all the six, she has to charge each house for $20,000. This indicates that the quantity effect of selling the sixth motor home is given as

the cost of the sixth house which is $20,000 so the correct answer is $20,000.

3 0
2 years ago
Laughlin, Inc., uses a standard costing system. The predetermined overhead rates are calculated using practical capacity. Practi
Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

(1) $5,300 F; $30,000

(2) $77,800 U; $22,500 U

Explanation:

1. Fixed Overhead Spending variance:

= Budgeted Fixed Overhead - Actual Fixed Overhead

= 300,000 -294,700

= $5,300 Favorable

Fixed Overhead Volume variance:

= (Standard Output -Actual Output ) × Fixed Overhead absorption rate per unit of output

= (1,000,000 - 900,000) × (300,000 ÷ 1,000,000)

= 30,000 Unfavorable

2. Actual Hours = 190,000

Actual variable Overhead = 800,000 -294,700

                                           = 505,300

Standard variable Overhead rate = (750,000 - 300,000) ÷ 200,000

                                                       = 2.25

Variable Overhead Spending Variance:

= (Actual hours × Standard variable overhead rate per hour) - Actual manufacturing overhead

= (190,000 × 2.25) - 505,300

= 77,800 unfavorable

Variable overhead Efficiency variance:

= (Standard Hour - Actual Hour) × Standard variable Overhead rate

= [(200,000 ÷ 1,000,000) × 900000 - 190,000] × 2.25

= $22,500 Unfavorable

3. The Journal entries are as follows:

WIP inventory A/C                               Dr.  $727,500

To Fixed manufacturing Overhead                            $300,000

To Variable manufacturing Overhead                       $427,500

(To record fixed and variable manufacturing overhead)

Workings:

Variable manufacturing Overhead = 190,000 × 2.25

                                                         = $427,500

Fixed manufacturing Overhead A/c    Dr. $5,300

WIP Inventory A/C                                 Dr. $72,500

To Variable manufacturing Overhead                         $77,800

(To record Closing out overhead variances)

3 0
3 years ago
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