The measure of systematic risk is called <u>beta</u>.
The answer is option c.
Beta is the same old CAPM measure of systematic hazard. It gauges the tendency of the go back of protection to transport in parallel with the return of the inventory market as an entire. One manner to consider beta is as a gauge of a protection's volatility relative to the marketplace's volatility.
Systematic risk is a part of the total risk this is caused by factors beyond the control of a specific company or individual. Systematic risk is caused by elements that are outside to the organization. All investments or securities are situations to systematic hazard and, therefore, it's far a non-diversifiable chance.
To measure a monetary firm's contribution to systemic hazard includes measuring the company's expected capital shortfall in a crisis. This right away offers the regulator with a quantifiable degree of the relative significance of a firm's contribution to ordinary systemic chance.
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Answer:
False
Explanation:
4PL is the term used for fourth party logistics. It has nothing to do with a truck company. Rather it refers to the party of logistics services provider who provides the services in which it further takes the charge of goods from 3rd party of logistics service provider.
It not only delivers the goods but rather provides the entire facility of storage and care in the entire process.
This basically is not a function of trucking company, but a company which manages the goods transportation in complete sense. It even includes insurance during transportation many times.
Answer:
B) cognitive dissonance
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various psychologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question his attitude change is best explained by cognitive dissonance. This is defined as the state of having inconsistent thoughts, beliefs, or attitudes, especially as relating to behavioral decisions and attitude change. Which is exactly what Fernando is experiencing.
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Answer:
<u>A and B are correct</u>
Explanation :
- The TVM concept is based on the value of money which is today may change with time as a rise or fall in prices thus this explains why the interest rates are paid and calculated on the basis of the present values that may change such as future sum of money of cash flows, can get discontinued at the discounted rates.
- Future values can be ascertained based on the present value of the product/assert. Thus the interest rates and inflation rates change as the risks and the consumer's needs will always be present and have existed earlier.
- It's calculated by the present value and future value of money multiplied by the interest rate and the total number of years. I.e
- FV = PV x [ 1 + (i / n) ] (n x t)
Answer:
Lynn will receive $63,754 at the end of 8 years.
Explanation:
Future value is the sum of value of principal invested and compounded return received over the investment period.
Using following formula of future value to calculate the required interest rate.
FV = PV x ( 1 + r )^n
PV = Present value = $40,000
n = number of years = 8 years
r = Interest rate = 6%
FV = Future value = ?
FV = $40,000 x ( 1 + 6% )^8 = $63,754