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klasskru [66]
4 years ago
15

1. The loanable fund model tells us that, other things being equal, capital will tend to flow from countries with __ to countrie

s with __.
2. International differences in the demand for domestic loanable funds are primarily due to variations in __, while differences in the supply of funds generally reflect differences in __
Business
1 answer:
valentina_108 [34]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1) The loanable fund model tells us that, other things being equal, capital will tend to flow from countries with low interest rates to countries with high interest rates.

2) International differences in the demand for domestic loanable funds are primarily due to variations in investment opportunities , while differences in the supply of funds generally reflect differences in savings rate.

Explanation:

1) According to the loanable funds model people living in countries with low interest rate will move their money to other countries which have higher interest rates in order to earn a higher interest rate on their money. This is also known as hot money flow. For example If I live in UK has an interest rate of 4% and Germany has an interest rate of 8%, I will move my money to Germany to earn extra interest on my money. This is an example of money flowing from a country with low interest rate to a country with high interest rate.

2) There will be higher demand for loanable funds if there are more investment opportunities because people will borrow money to invest in other ventures in order to make more money than the interest they are paying, if the investment opportunities are low then the demand for loanable funds will also be low as people would not want to borrow money. And the supply of loanable funds is the money that people save in banks, so the higher the savings rate the higher the supply of loanable funds will be.

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How should a loss contingency that is reasonably possible and for which the amount can be reasonably estimated be reported
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

as a footnote in financial statements or on the balance sheet

Explanation:

A loss contingency can be defined as the situation or occurrence in which there is uncertainty about an entity but that will be resolved when a/some future situation occurs or not.

Simply put, a loss contingency can be said to be loss of an entity that can be resolved later in future by the occurrence or not of an event.

When a loss can be reasonably estimated as seen from the question, it should be written as a footnote on a financial statement or on a balance sheet.

cheers.

5 0
3 years ago
Walter Company uses a job-order costing system to account for product costs. The following information pertains to the current y
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

COGM = 450,000

Explanation:

The amount debited will be equal to the COGM which is the cost of goods manufactured.

COGM = beginnning WIP + cost added - ending WIP

<u>we need to know the cost added during the period:</u>

cost added during the period

materials         140,000

direct labor     160,000

overhead applied

18 x 10,000 =  <u> 180,000  </u>

total                 480,000

Notice, for the overhead we multiply the predetermined rate by the amount of labor hours.

The actual values and adjustment for application of overhead are calculate later at year-end

Now, we are given the following information:

<u>we know that WIP increase by 30,000</u>

so : ending is 30,000 dollars greater than beginning

which implies ending - beginning = -30,000

we plug that into the formula:

COGM = cost added + (beginning WIP - ending WIP)

COGM = 480,000 - 30,000

COGM = 450,000

4 0
4 years ago
Empire Industries is considering adding a new product to its lineup. This product is expected to generate sales for four years a
Andreyy89

Answer:

The project's net present value if the firm wants to earn a 13 percent rate of return is c. $4,312.65

Explanation:

The Net Present Value of a Project is Calculated by Taking the Present Day (Discounted) Value of All future Net Cashflows based on the <em>Business Cost of Capital</em> and <em>Subtracting</em> the initial Cost of the Investment.

Using A Financial Calculator Cf Function:

Cf0 = -62,000

Cf1 =   16.500

Cf2 =  23,800

Cf3 =  27,100

Cf4 =  23,300

IRR = 13 %

NPV = 4,312.65

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
mz technologies’ dividend growth is expected to decline gradually. for the next four years, the growth is expected to be 20%. in
Cloud [144]

Answer:

$9.00

Explanation:

Note: See the attached file for the calculation of PV of year 1 to 7 dividends.

Price at year 7 = year 8 dividend / (Rate of return - Perpetual growth rate) =  (0.5747245056 * 1.05) / (10% - 5%) = $12.0692146176

PV of price at year 7 = $12.0692146176 / (1.10)^7 = $6.19341546169015

Current price = Sum of PV of years 1 to 7 dividends + PV of price at year 7 = $2.81096656749202 + $6.19341546169015 = $9.00

Download xlsx
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Over [174]

Answer:

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3 years ago
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