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poizon [28]
3 years ago
5

Depreciation is an amortized expenditure True or False

Business
1 answer:
IRISSAK [1]3 years ago
4 0
False i think maybe not
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Middlefield Motors is evaluating project A, which would require the purchase of a piece of equipment for 393,000 dollars. During
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

0.2273

Explanation:

The computation of the tax rate expected to be in year 1 is shown below:-

Depreciation = Operating cash flow - Net income - Interest

= $73,000 - $17,000 - $23,580

= $32,420

Earning before interest and tax = Revenue - Cost - Depreciation

= $157,000 - $79,000 - $32,420 -

= $45,580

Earning before tax = Earning before interest and tax - Interest

= $45,580 - $23,580

= $22,000

Tax rate = Earning before tax - Net income

= $22,000 - $17,000

= $5,000

Tax rate = Tax ÷ EBT

= $5,000 ÷ $22,000

= 0.2273

3 0
3 years ago
Oriole Company uses the percentage-of-receivables method for recording bad debt expense. The Accounts Receivable balance is $380
ohaa [14]

Answer:

Adjusting journal entry:

Dr Bad debt expense 19,000

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 19,000

Explanation:

accounts receivable balance = $380,000

total credit sales = $1,520,000

6% of accounts receivable will be bad debt = $380,000 x 6% = $22,800

credit balance allowance for doubtful accounts account = $3,800, and it must increase to $22,800 ⇒ $22,800 - $3,800 = $19,000

Adjusting journal entry:

Dr Bad debt expense 19,000

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 19,000

Allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra asset account with a credit balance that reduces the value of accounts receivable.

4 0
4 years ago
Competitive price-taker markets and purely competitive markets are:
vova2212 [387]

Answer:

While a competitive market determines the equilibrium point by staying in tune with the supply and demand curves, a perfectly competitive market does not have that luxury. A perfectly competitive market must accept the price point and must only decide how much to sell.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Consider the​ downward-sloping aggregate demand​ (AD) curve to the right. Which of the following results in a movement from poin
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

B. Wealth Effect

Explanation:

First, let's remind that downward-sloping aggregate demand means that as the price level falls, the demanded output quantity rises. There are mainly three reasons that explain this: the interest rate effect, the exchange rate and our answer to this question, Wealth Effect.

Wealth Effect means that if prices are lower, that makes people wealthier, as with the same money they can buy more goods or services than they could buy before, therefore demanding more output. So you see, the Wealth Effects is one of the explanations of this inverse relationship between the price level and the aggregate demand.

3 0
3 years ago
Fill in the blanks with given options:
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

2. a demand curve

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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