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topjm [15]
3 years ago
11

9 1/8 divided by 2/3

Mathematics
1 answer:
lyudmila [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

219/16

Step-by-step explanation:

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Jh oadsffffffffffkjsadfkjsahdfjkhdsafkjasdjhfdahf
Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

fhasdfbjsdvbsvljbdsvvbdfvbdwvwdbhvlsvlhsvsjvsxvsklvsj

hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
SOMEONE PLEASE I NEED HELP Find a polynomial f(x) of degree 4 that has the following zeros. 6, 5, -4, -7 - Leave your answer in
sattari [20]

Answer:

y=(x-6)(x-5)(x+4)(x+7)

Step-by-step explanation:

<u><em>Formulate the equation of the polynomial function</em></u>

<u><em /></u>y=(x-6)(x-5)(x+4)(x+7)

<em>I hope this helps you</em>

<em>:)</em>

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume {v1, . . . , vn} is a basis of a vector space V , and T : V ------&gt; W is an isomorphism where W is another vector spac
Degger [83]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove that w_1,\dots w_n form a basis for W, we must check that this set is a set of linearly independent vector and it generates the whole space W. We are given that T is an isomorphism. That is, T is injective and surjective. A linear transformation is injective if and only if it maps the zero of the domain vector space to the codomain's zero and that is the only vector that is mapped to 0. Also, a linear transformation is surjective if for every vector w in W there exists v in V such that T(v) =w

Recall that the set w_1,\dots w_n is linearly independent if and only if  the equation

\lambda_1w_1+\dots \lambda_n w_n=0 implies that

\lambda_1 = \cdots = \lambda_n.

Recall that w_i = T(v_i) for i=1,...,n. Consider T^{-1} to be the inverse transformation of T. Consider the equation

\lambda_1w_1+\dots \lambda_n w_n=0

If we apply T^{-1} to this equation, then, we get

T^{-1}(\lambda_1w_1+\dots \lambda_n w_n) =T^{-1}(0) = 0

Since T is linear, its inverse is also linear, hence

T^{-1}(\lambda_1w_1+\dots \lambda_n w_n) = \lambda_1T^{-1}(w_1)+\dots +  \lambda_nT^{-1}(w_n)=0

which is equivalent to the equation

\lambda_1v_1+\dots +  \lambda_nv_n =0

Since v_1,\dots,v_n are linearly independt, this implies that \lambda_1=\dots \lambda_n =0, so the set \{w_1, \dots, w_n\} is linearly independent.

Now, we will prove that this set generates W. To do so, let w be a vector in W. We must prove that there exist a_1, \dots a_n such that

w = a_1w_1+\dots+a_nw_n

Since T is surjective, there exists a vector v in V such that T(v) = w. Since v_1,\dots, v_n is a basis of v, there exist a_1,\dots a_n, such that

a_1v_1+\dots a_nv_n=v

Then, applying T on both sides, we have that

T(a_1v_1+\dots a_nv_n)=a_1T(v_1)+\dots a_n T(v_n) = a_1w_1+\dots a_n w_n= T(v) =w

which proves that w_1,\dots w_n generate the whole space W. Hence, the set \{w_1, \dots, w_n\} is a basis of W.

Consider the linear transformation T:\mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}^2, given by T(x,y) = T(x,0). This transformations fails to be injective, since T(1,2) = T(1,3) = (1,0). Consider the base of \mathbb{R}^2 given by (1,0), (0,1). We have that T(1,0) = (1,0), T(0,1) = (0,0). This set is not linearly independent, and hence cannot be a base of \mathbb{R}^2

8 0
3 years ago
A 2-gallon container of laundry detergent costs $28.80. What is the price per quart?
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

$3.60

Step-by-step explanation:

we can use conversion factors for this

we can multiply anything by 1, or fractions that equal 1

now 4quarts/1 gal = 1

we can multiply 2gal * 4 quarts/ 1 gal = 8 quarts

28.8/8 = $3.60

3 0
3 years ago
What is the best classification for the triangle?
zhuklara [117]
A triangle is an isosceles if two sides are equal, it’s an equilateral if all three sides are equal.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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