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grin007 [14]
3 years ago
13

Accounting for manufacturing overhead. Creative Woodworking uses normal costing and allocates manufacturing overhead to jobs bas

ed on a budgeted labor-hour rate and actual direct labor-hours. Under- or over allocated overhead, if immaterial, is written off to Cost of Goods Sold. During 2017, Creative recorded the following:
Budgeted manufacturing overhead costs $4,140,000
Budgeted direct labor-hours 180,000
Actual manufacturing overhead costs $4,337,000
Actual direct labor-hours 189,000

a. Compute the budgeted manufacturing overhead rate.
b. Prepare the summary journal entry to record the allocation of manufacturing overhead.
c. Compute the amount of under- or overallocated manufacturing overhead. Is the amount significant enough to warrant proration of overhead costs, or should Creative Woodworking write it off to cost of
goods sold? Prepare the journal entry to dispose of the under- or overallocated overhead.
Business
1 answer:
VikaD [51]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a) Budgeted manufacturing overhead rate =  budgeted overhead cost / budgeted labor hours

                                                                       = $ 4,140,000/ 180,000 hrs

                                                                       = $23 per hour.

b. JOURNAL ENTRY

Debit Work in process $4,347,000 Credit Manufacturing overhead $4,347,000

c. under or over applied = Actual overheads - applied

                                        = $4,337,000 - $4,347,000

              Over applied   = 10,000

yes the amount of over applied overheads is significant and material enough and it should be written off against cost of sales.

JOURNAL ENTRY

Debit Manufacturing overheads $10,000 , Credit Cost of sales $10,000

Explanation:

allocated manufacturing overheard = $23 * 189000 hrs = $4,347,000

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Avia Company sells a product for $150 per unit. Variable costs are $70 per unit, and fixed costs are $1200 per month. The compan
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

$80 per unit

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Per unit selling cost of the product = $150

Per unit variable cost of the product = $70

Total fixed cost per month = $1200

Now,

The unit contribution margin is calculated as:

unit contribution margin = Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit

Thus,

unit contribution margin = $150 - $70

or

unit contribution margin = $80 per unit

Hence,

The correct answer is option $80 per unit

4 0
3 years ago
On December​ 31, Mercury Corporation has the following data​ available:
galben [10]

Answer:

37.25%

Explanation:

Average total common stockholders' equity:

= (Beginning common​ stockholders' equity + Ending common​ stockholders' equity) ÷ 2

= ($530,000 + $490,000) ÷ 2

= $510,000

Return on Equity = Net income ÷ Average total common stockholders' equity

                            = $190,000 ÷ $510,000

                            = 0.3725

                            = 37.25%

3 0
3 years ago
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Lelu [443]
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Celine Dion Company issued $600,000 of 10%, 20-year bonds on January 1, 2020, at 102. Interest is payable semiannually on July 1
anzhelika [568]

Answer:

The Journal entries are as follows:

(a) On January 1, 2020

Cash A/c(6,000 bonds × $102) Dr. $612,000

         To Bonds payable                                  $600,000

         To premium on bonds payable             $12,000

(To record the issuance of the bonds)

Workings:

premium on bonds payable = $612,000 - $600,000

                                               = $12,000

(b) On July 1, 2020

Interest expense A/c                  Dr. $29,700

Premium on bonds payable A/c Dr. $300

        To cash A/c                                            $30,000

(To record the interest expense)

Workings:

Cash = $600,000 × (6/12) × 10%

         = $30,000

Premium on bonds payable = $12,000 ÷ 40 periods

                                               = $300

(c) On December 31, 2020

Interest expense A/c                  Dr. $29,700

Premium on bonds payable A/c Dr. $300

        To Interest payable A/c                            $30,000

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8 0
3 years ago
A company is considering an iron ore extraction project that requires an initial investment of and will yield annual cash inflow
Murrr4er [49]

Answer: D. 15%

Explanation:

The IRR is the discount rate that will make the Net Present Value to be 0.

In other words, the IRR is the discount rate that will make the cash inflow from the investment to be equal to the investment amount.

As the cashflow is constant, it is an annuity and so can be calculated by the Present Value Interest Factor.

Investment cost = $1,100,000

Using the options given;

Discount rate - 14%

Present Value of Cash inflow = 676,507 * Present Value of Annuity factor, 14%, 2 years

= 676,507 * 1.647

= $1,114,207.029‬

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Discount rate - 15%

Present Value of Cash inflow = 676,507 * Present Value of Annuity factor, 15%, 2 years

= 676,507 * 1.626

= $1,100,000.382‬

= $1,100,000‬

IRR is 15% as Present value of Cash inflow is equal to Investment cost at a discount rate of 15%.

8 0
3 years ago
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