Answer:
The accrued interest receivable is $2000
Explanation:
Accrued interest receivable refers to interest earned by a company but has not received in cash. This happens when the cash to be paid as interest falls outside an accounting period. Accrued interest receivable is an asset account on the investor's books and a current liability on the issuer's books.
Since the accrued interest is to be between December 1 and December 31, the time period is 1 month = 1/12 years.
loan percent = 12% = 0.12
loan amount = $200000
The accrued interest receivable = Time period × loan percent × loan amount = (1/12) × 0.12 × 200000 = $2000
The accrued interest receivable is $2000
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
‘Cash Flow Statement’ is one of major financial statement that indicates the inflow and outflow of cash along with the reasons by categorizing each cash transaction in three activities i.e., operating, investing or financing activity. Non-cash transactions are not considered while preparing a cash flow statement.
The cash flow from operating activities is generally more than the net income after taxes.
The cash flow from operating activities includes only the cash transactions relating to the operations of the business. It ignores the non-cash transactions. On the other hand, net income is derived after deducting all the expenses (paid or unpaid) from the revenue earned, pertaining to a particular period.
Example: Depreciation expense is a non-cash transaction. It is treated as follows:
While calculating cash flow from operating activities, depreciation expense is ignored (added back to the net income) as it is a non-cash transaction.
On the other hand, depreciation expense pertaining to the accounting period is deducted from revenue to calculate net income after taxes.
Thus, the cash flow from operations is generally more than the net income after taxes.
It is in california
has universal studios
has hollywood
has disney world
has legoland
has sea world
Answer:
The Prior Period Adjustment to be recorded in 2025 will include a $90 debit as adjustment to Retained Earnings
Explanation:
Correct depreciation would have been = ($500-$100)/5 = $80
Depreciation charged wrongly as ($500-$400)/8 = $50
Therefore depreciation has been charged short by $30 for three years, thereby reflecting income greater by $30 each year for 3 years.
Since due to wrong depreciation retained earnings is higher by $90, therefore we have to debit retained earnings by $90
I think it’s C, please forgive me if I’m wrong
