1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Montano1993 [528]
3 years ago
9

Why did Shakespeare’s noble character speak in iambic pentameter while commoners spoke mainly in blank verse or prose

History
1 answer:
Damm [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

To create a distinction between the educated nobility and the coarse lower classes.

Explanation:

Back in the time of Shakespeare, the nobles were generally seen and portrayed as wise people who had access to a superior quality education. Thus, writing their dialogues in such a noticeable metric like iambic pentameter differentiated them from the lower class less educated characters in plays.

You might be interested in
What is the answer in History
stich3 [128]

Answer:

Roe v. Wade, 410 U.S. 113 (1973), was a landmark decision of the U.S. Supreme Court in which the Court ruled that the Constitution of the United States protects a pregnant woman's liberty to choose to have an abortion without excessive government restriction.

Explanation:

Hope this helps!! :)

6 0
2 years ago
Which sentence best contributes to the confused tone of “The Yellow Wallpaper”?
ElenaW [278]

Answer: A

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why do entrepreneurs risk failure to go into business? A) There is no failure in the market. B) The risk to go bankrupt is too g
Aneli [31]

Answer:

C) The risk to succeed at a profit is worth it.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Imagine you are reading an article about the goals of the national archives to reduce its energy use. What two facts could help
Oliga [24]
B. the information statues as primary and secondary
D. The informations topic and tone
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2<br> What were the purposes and methods of the concerts<br> Of Europe?
MissTica

Answer: Concert of Europe, in the post-Napoleonic era, the vague consensus among the European monarchies favouring preservation of the territorial and political status quo. The term assumed the responsibility and right of the great powers to intervene and impose their collective will on states threatened by internal rebellion.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What happens first when a bill is introduced in the House?
    15·2 answers
  • What good became Essential to the success of Jamestown
    9·1 answer
  • Why might the partition of India in 1947 be considered a failure?
    6·1 answer
  • Feudalism began first in _______ and spread to other parts of europe.
    12·1 answer
  • How did economic opportunity divide urban and rural dwellers?
    12·1 answer
  • Who was the white southerner group that burned schools and
    14·1 answer
  • PLEASE HURY!!!! I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!
    10·1 answer
  • Interstate commerce is an example of a shared power. true or false​
    7·1 answer
  • 29. What is NOT a reason Germany was angry about the Treaty of Versailles?
    6·1 answer
  • After WWI, in what way was Europe bound to the U.S?
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!