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3 years ago

9

Which of the following exists when a country can produce something more cheaply and/or of higher quality than any other country

can?

1 answer:

shusha [124]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

they have the prime market I think? I don't see any options on here to know what direction the question is going.

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Walther owns a home in flood-prone Paradise Basin. If there is no flood the home and land together will be worth $2400. If there

Leto [7]

Answer:

$2,554

Explanation:

The computation of value is shown below::-

Assume insurance purchase is N units

$C_n_f = Land\ - Flood\ insurance$

= $2,400 - $0.2 per dollar

$C_f = Land\ worth\ after\ flood - 0.2\ M + M$

= $600 - 0.2 M + M

= $600 + 0.8 M

$C_n_f = a\ - \frac{C_f}{b}$

$2,400 - $0.2 M = a - ($600 + 0.8 M) ÷ b

$2,400 - $0.2 M = a - $600 ÷ b - 0.8 ÷ b

now we will equate the situation

-0.2 M = 0.8 M ÷ b

-0.2 = 0.8 ÷ b

b = 4

Now, we will put the value of b to find out the value of a

a - $600 ÷ b = $2,400

a - $600 ÷ 4 = $2,400

a - $150 = $2,400

a = $2,400 + $150

a = $2,550

Now we will find out the a and b by putting the values

= a + b

= $2,550 + 4

= $2,554

7 0

3 years ago

The number of persons coming through a blood bank until the first person with type A blood is a random variable Y with a geometr

GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

a. ½(Y² - Y) is an unbiased estimator of the variance.

b. 2 Standard Error = 2√(Y²/2 - Y/2)

Explanation:

Given

E(Y) = 1/p

V(Y) = (1 - p)/p²

Simplifying V(Y)...

V(Y) = 1/p² - 1/p

Because V(Y) = 1/p² - 1/p and E(Y) = 1/p,

We'll guess that there might be an unbiased estimator of shape

aY² + bY.

Solving E(aY² + bY)...

First, E(Y²) = V(Y) + (E(Y))²

Substituting the values of V(Y) and E(Y);

E(Y²) = 1/p² - 1/p + (1/p)²

E(Y²) = 1/p² - 1/p + 1/p²

E(Y²) = 2/p² - 1/p

With the above,

E(aY² + bY) is then equal to

E(aY² + bY) = 2a/p² - a/p + b/p

The above equation is equal to V(Y), if and only if

a = ½ and b = -½

-------------- Checking------------

Let E(aY² + bY) = V(Y)

i.e.

2a/p² - a/p + b/p = 1/p² - 1/p

Multiply through by l

2a/p - a + b = 1/p - 1

Comparing right hand side to left hand side

2a/p = 1/p ----- Equation 1

And

- a + b = - 1 ------- Equation 2

Solving Equation 1 (Multiply both sides by p)

2a = 1

So, a = ½

Substitute ½ for a in Equation 2

-½ + b = -1

b = -1 + ½

b = -½

------------ End --------------

Thus ½(Y² - Y) is an unbiased estimator of the variance.

b.

2 Standard Error is given by

2√V(Y)

= 2√(1/p² - 1/p)

= 2√(Y²/2 - Y/2)

6 0

3 years ago

2. The La Salle Bus Company has decided to purchase a new bus for $95,000 with a trade-in of their old bus. The old bus has a BV

Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

a.

9 recovery period years class

b.

$8,889 per year

Explanation:

a.

Buses are 9 years recovery period class , in which it is depreciated using historical method and it has 5 years GDS class life.

b.

Straight Line depreciation is a method of depreciation in which the cost of the asset net of residual value is divided over useful life.

We will depreciate this asset for only 9 years because it has 9 years class, even it will be kept for 10 years but the depreciation charged for 9 years.

Depreciation rate = ( Cost - Salvage Value ) / useful life = ($95,000 - $15,000) / 9 = $8,889

Depreciation charged in 2018 = $19,500

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A firm has the production function y = min{x1, x2} + min{x3, x4}. This firm faces competitive factor markets where the prices fo

ANTONII [103]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Explanation

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.

3 0

3 years ago

A firm incurs $35,000,000 of actual OH costs. It has a PDOH rate of $450 per machine hour and 100,000 machine hours were actuall

ella [17]

Answer:

c. Debit: Overhead Control $10,000,000

Credit: Cost of Goods Sold $10,000,000

Explanation:

The journal entry to close the overhead account is presented below:

Overhead Control A/c Dr $10,000,000

To Cost of Goods Sold A/c $10,000,000

(Being the overhead account is closed)

The computation is shown below:

= Applied overhead - actual overhead

where,

Applied overhead equal to

= $450 × 100,000 machine hours

= $45,000,000

And, the actual overhead is $35,000,000

So, the amount would be

= $45,000,000 - $35,000,000

= $10,000,000

Since the applied overhead is greater than the actual overhead, so we debited the overhead control account and credited the cost of goods sold account

5 0

3 years ago