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Damm [24]
3 years ago
12

Helpful in assessing the risk of lending to investors for particular projects, which of the following calculations measures the

income-producing ability of the property to meet operating and financial obligations?
A. Profitability ratios
B. Income multipliers
C. Financial risk ratios
D. Income tax multipliers
Business
2 answers:
Degger [83]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C. Financial risk ratios

Explanation:

Financial risk ratios are calculated to measure the financial risk of the company. It measure the financial capability of an entity. For lending purpose the lender has to ensure that is the borrower able to repay the borrowed amount and interest on it. The lender need to estimate the capability of the borrower for payment of loan back. These ratio care Debt to capital ratio, Coverage ratio etc.  

allochka39001 [22]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The income-producing ability of a company is determined by calculating the Profitability ratios.

These ratios calculate the ability of a company to produce income and turn the income into profits and added value for shareholders.  A company can meet operating and financial obligations only if it generates enough income in excess of its expenses.

The bases for calculating profitability ratios are revenue, operating costs, assets, and equity.

Profitability ratios are grouped into two classes: Margin Ratios and Return Ratios.

Explanation:

The Margin Ratios measure the company's ability to turn sales into a profit.  They include Gross Margin Ratio and Net Income Ratio.  They are expressed as a percentage of Sales or Cost of Goods Sold.

Return Ratios measure a firm's ability to add value for shareholders.  They include Return on Assets and Return on Equity, among other variants.

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Tju [1.3M]
I believe the answer is D
4 0
3 years ago
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Suppose that there are many stocks in the security market and that the characteristics of stocks A and B are given as follows: S
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

0.135 or 13.5%

Explanation:

Given in the question are the following:

ERA = Expected return of Stock A = 12% = 0.12

ERB = Expected return of Stock B = 19% = 0.19

SDA = Standard deviation of Stock A = 3% = 0.03

SDB = Standard deviation of Stock B = 9% = 0.09

CAB = Correlation between A and B = -1

The correlation of -1 between Stock A and Stock B indicates that there a perfect negative correlation between the two stocks. Therefore, we can create a risk-free portfolio which its rate of return will be the risk-free rate in equilibrium.  

If we let wA denotes the proportion of investment in Stock A, and let wB denotes the proportion of investment in Stock B, the proportion of this portfolio can be obtained by setting its standard deviation equal to zero. Since there is a perfect negative correlation, the standard deviation of this portfolio (SDP) can be given as follows:

Absolute value [(wA × SDA) – (wB × SDB)] = SDP …………………………………….. (1)

Note that wB = (1 – wA) since the sum of the weight must be equal to 1.

Substituting all the relevant values into equation and set SDP = 0, we have  

[(0.03 × wA) − (0.11 × (1 - wA))] = 0

0.03wA – 0.11 + 0.11wA = 0

0.03wA + 0.11wA = 0.11

0.14wA = 0.11

wA = 0.11 ÷ 0.14 = 0.785714285714286

Since wB = 1 –wA, therefore:

wB = 1 - 0.785714285714286 = 0.214285714285714

The expected rate of return of the portfolio (ERP) can be estimated as follows:

ERP = (wA × ERA) + (wB × ERB)  ................................. (2)

Substituting all the relevant values into equation (2), we have:

ERP = (0.785714285714286 × 0.12) + (0.214285714285714 × 0.19)  

       = 0.0942857142857143 + 0.0407142857142857

ERP = 0.135 or 13.5%

Therefore, the value of the risk-free rate must be 13.5%.

4 0
3 years ago
Mallard Corporation uses the product cost concept of product pricing. Below is cost information for the production and sale of 4
KiRa [710]

Answer:

1. Cost per unit = 860,500/45000 units = $19.12

2. Mark up = 12% * 800,000 = $96,000/45000 units = $2.13

mark up = 2.13/19.12 = 11.14%

3. Therefore selling price per unit = $19.12+$2.13 = $21.25

Explanation:

Variable direct materials cost per unit............................ 5.50

Variable direct labor cost per unit.................................... 7.65

Variable factory overhead cost per unit .........................2.25

Variable selling and administrative cost per unit........... .90

TOTAL VARIABLE COST PER UNIT..................................16.3

TOTAL VARIABLE COST = $16.3*45000 units = $733,500

Fixed factory overhead cost $82,000

Fixed selling and administrative costs 45,000

TOTAL COST = $ 860,500

1. Cost per unit = 860,500/45000 units = $19.12

2. Mark up = 12% * 800,000 = $96,000/45000 units = $2.13

mark up = 2.13/19.12 = 11.14%

3. Therefore selling price per unit = $19.12+$2.13 = $21.25

5 0
3 years ago
A person with anorexia nervosa is likely to Multiple Choice
Elis [28]

Answer:

2. grow up in a perfectionistic home with very high expectations.

Explanation:

1- There is no relation with economic conditions

3- There are no relation with how home is flexible

4- If we check where problem comes from and decided that mother can be the reason then even mother has a healthy body we expect person to be normal.

2- Grow up with very perfectionist and expecting lots of issues then anorexia might occur.

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3 years ago
Money managers:
yawa3891 [41]
The answer is D) are on the "but side" of Wall Street.
Just read the text. I'm 100% sure. Text below.

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