9514 1404 393
Answer:
12,00,000 rupees
Step-by-step explanation:
The fraction originally intended for each son was ...
(1/3)(1 -2/5) = 1/3(3/5) = 1/5
The fraction each son actually received was ...
(1 -1/6)(1/5) = (5/6)(1/5) = 1/6
The difference in these amounts as a fraction of the original distribution is ...
1/5 - 1/6 = (6/30) -(5/30) = 1/30
Then the original distribution is 30 times this difference:
30×40000 rupees = 12,00,000 rupees
_____
<em>Additional comment</em>
Originally-intended distribution (rupees):
- wife: 4,80,000
- each son: 2,40,000
Actual distribution:
- brother: 2,00,000
- wife: 4,00,000
- each son: 2,00,000
1,00,000 = 1 lakh
1>>g
2>>e
3>>h
4>>f
5>>b
6>j
7>>k
8>>c
9>>I
10>>d
11>>a
;)
Answer:
Yes, she can.
Step-by-step explanation:
12 < 5+8
Answer:
H0:p1=p2; Ha:p1≠p2, which is a two-tailed test.
Step-by-step explanation:
We formulate our hypotheses as
H0:p1=p2; Ha:p1≠p2, which is a two-tailed test.
Supposing the probability or proportion of the first survey is equal to the probability or proportion of the second survey. This will be the null hypothesis and the alternative hypotheses would be that these two proportions or probabilities are unequal.
This is a two tailed test.
Step-by-step explanation:
Add 75 to 12.55. the answer would be 87.55.
100+105=205
205-87.55=117.45