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Svetllana [295]
3 years ago
10

Suppose the price of a bag of jelly beans rises from $1.60 to $2.00, with the result that sales of jelly beans falls from 120 ba

gs to 80 bags a day. Using the midpoint method, what is the elasticity of demand for jelly beans?
Business
1 answer:
andrey2020 [161]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The elasticity of demand for jelly beans is 1.80

Explanation:

The elasticity of demand is the principle of economic which is defined as the measure that extent the consumer response to the changes in the quantity demanded as a consequence of price change and being others factors are equal.

Computing the elasticity of demand for jelly beans as:

Elasticity of demand = Price Change / Quantity Change

where

Price Change is as:

Price = $1.60 + $2.00

= $3.60

Quantity change is as:

Quantity = 120 + 80

= 200

So,

Elasticity of demand = $3.60 / 200 × 100

Elasticity of demand = 1.80

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Answer:

See below

Explanation:

My grandmother is referring to the effect of inflation on the currency. Economist defines inflation as the general but gradual increase of prices in the economy over time. As a country experiences economic growth, prices of goods and services tend to increase. The government monitors the increase in prices using tools like the consumer price index (CPI). The resultant figure from the CPI is the inflation rate.

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Equity securities acquired by a corporation which are accounted for by recognizing unrealized holding gains or losses in the inc
koban [17]

Answer:

a.equity method investments where a company has holding of less than 20 %

3 0
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A fixed asset with a five-year estimated useful life and no scrap value is sold at the end of the second year of its useful life
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

B) A gain would be less or a loss would be greater using straight-line depreciation.

Explanation:

In straight line method of depreciation there is a fixed amount of depreciation,  and in double declining method the rate is double of straight line method,

Let us take an example,

Cost of asset = $500,000

Selling price at end of 2nd year = $300,000

Straight line depreciation = $100,000 for each year i.e. $500,000/5

Double declining method rate = ($100,000/$500,000) \times 100 \times 2 = 40%

Therefore value at end of second year

Straight line = $500,000 - ($100,000 \times 2 ) = $300,000

Double Declining method = ($500,000 -40%) - 40% = $180,000

In case of sale at $300,000

Profit shall be

Straight line = $300,000 - $300,000 = 0

Double Declining = $300,000 - $180,000 = $120,000

Now, there will be more profit in double declining that is gain is less in straight line and losses would be greater in straight line thus statement B is correct.

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Answer:

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