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AnnyKZ [126]
3 years ago
15

Summarize the internal control principle of establishing responsibility by completing the following sentence. Proper internal co

ntrol means that responsibility for a ____________ (task/shortage/sale) is clearly _________ (posted/established/compensated) and assigned to one person
-Task
-Established
Business
1 answer:
Greeley [361]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Task  / established

Explanation:

Internal control was created for a couple of reasons:

1. to ensure that there is no corrupt practices occurring from within the organization.

2. To ensure that every single employees are held accountable to the tasks that given to them

3. A way for managers to monitor the productivity rate of the team.

'Tasks' are a set of duties that the employees need to fulfill during the operation, If one employees fail to fulfill any of their tasks, it could become a hindrance for another employees.

The word 'Established' Indicated that the task is strongly structured by the higher ups and the employees have no right to change it without the permission from the higher ups.

You might be interested in
An investor has sold 1 ABC Jan 50 Call and has bought 1 ABC Apr 60 Call. This is a:________.
Kitty [74]

Answer:

diagonal spread

Explanation:

Spread is basically a sale and purchase of a call. So here the the types of spreads determine the relationship between the strike price and the expiration dates of all options involved in the trade.

In this example investor has sold 1 ABC Jan 50 Call and has bought 1 ABC Apr 60 Call. This means he bought the option ABC with the longer expiration date and with a higher strike price and sold the option ABC with the near expiration date and the lower strike price. Here both the expiration and strike price are different. So this is an example of diagonal spread.

The option horizontal spread is incorrect because it is a spread that depicts the difference in expiration dates but strike price is the same. Here both the expiration and strike price are different.

The option straddle is incorrect because it is a spread in which both options have the same expiry date and same strike price. Here both the expiration and strike price are different.

The option dialogue spread is not a valid option too.

The option Combination is also suitable because this is an example of Combination and combinations include option spread trades such as vertical spreads, horizontal spreads, and diagonal spreads.

So the most suitable option is diagonal spread which is an example of Combination.

5 0
3 years ago
Oriole Family Instruments makes cellos. During the past year, the company made 6,630 cellos even though the budget planned for o
Setler [38]

Answer:

Direct Labor rate Variance  $ 24840 Unfavorable

Labor Efficiency  Variance  $23520 favorable

Explanation:

Direct Labor rate Variance = Actual Hours * Actual Rate- Actual Hour * Standard Rate

Direct Labor rate Variance = 24840*15- 24840*14

                                                = 372600- 347760    

                                            = $ 24840 Unfavorable

Labor Efficiency  Variance =  Actual Hours * Standard Rate- Standard Hour * Standard Rate

Labor Efficiency  Variance =  24840*14- 4*6630*14

                                           =  24840*14- 26520*14

                                         = 347760 - 371280= $23520 favorable

7 0
2 years ago
Which of the following illustrates an inflow of cash? a. a decrease in common stock b. a decrease in long-term debt c. a decreas
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

The answer is C.

Explanation:

A decrease in inventory means customers are buying inventories (goods) from the business. It is an inflow because money comes in.

Option A is incorrect because a decrease in common stock means shareholders are withdrawing their shareholding from the business and the business will pay them. This is an outflow.

Option B is incorrect because a decrease in long term debt means the business is paying its debt or redcuing its liability and this is an outflow.

Option D is also incorrect because an increase in fixed assets means the business is buying this asset with cash and this is an outflow

6 0
2 years ago
OKRs can be executed in stages. The first stage would be keyed to a deadline and then then once the project is completed and run
DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

b) false

Explanation:

OKR is a goal-setting method used by companies. It is impleemented using following steps

  • Communicate the OKR
  • Choose a tool used for OKR
  • Organize the Company's OKR
  • Set the company's OKR
  • Set every single OKR for teams, departments and Individuals
  • Make the changes in OKR if required
  • Approve the OKR
  • Evaluate the OKR at each period end.

So, the OKR cannot be implemented in a single step and it requires multiple steps.

Hence the given statement is false.

4 0
3 years ago
g Kaye's Kitchenware has a market/book ratio equal to 1. Its stock price is $12 per share and it has 5.2 million shares outstand
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

48.00%

Explanation:

For computing the debt to capital ratio, first we have to determine the equity value and debt value which is shown below:

Equity value = Number of outstanding shares × stock price per share

                    = 5.2 million shares × $12

                    = $62.4 million

We know,

Total capital = Debt + equity

$120 million = Debt + $62.4 million

So, the debt would be

= $120 million - $62.4 million

= $57.6 million

Now the debt to capital ratio would be

= $57.6 million ÷ $120 million

= 48.00%

7 0
3 years ago
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