An inventory turnover analysis is useful to the internal auditor because it may detect <u>the existence of obsolete merchandise.</u>
Inventory that has reached the end of its useful life is called as obsolete inventory. It has been a while since this inventory was utilized or sold, and it is not anticipated that it will be in the near future. This kind of inventory must be written off or written down and can result in significant losses for a business.
<h3>What is turnover analysis?</h3>
The dynamics of people leaving or remaining in an organization are evaluated using turnover analysis to:
- The causes of people's departures and stays
- The expense of turnover caused by a lapse in company continuity
- How to reduce the danger of present employees leaving the company through turnover
The projected expense of replacing a paid worker ranges from 6 to 9 months of that worker's salary and includes both the direct expense of hiring a replacement and the indirect expense of lost productivity.
The ability of the company to accomplish its objectives and provide for its consumers may be compromised by high turnover. The customer experience can change noticeably even in response to small increases in turnover.
Employee turnover costs are frequently unforeseen and hence not accounted for.
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Answer: b. Sales Returns, Wages, Machinery, Discount Allowed
Explanation:
Sales returns reduce the sales made. Sales are put on the credit side so transactions that will reduce sales such as sales returns would have to go on the debit side.
Wages are an expense and expenses are debited to show they are increasing so they have a debit balance.
Machinery is an asset and assets have debit balances.
Discount allowed reduces the sales balance and as mentioned above, transactions that reduce sales go on the debit side so this has a debit balance as well.
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Answer:
The present value of the dividends to be paid out over the next six years if the required rate of return is 15 percent is $6.57
Explanation:
Solution:
Given that
The present value =∑ ⁿ t=1 cf/ (1 +r)t
where cf= cash flow
r =the required rate of return
t = the number of years
Now
The present value will be:
cf₁/(1+r)^1 + cf₂/(1 +)^2 + cf₃/(1+r)3 + cf₄/(1 +r)^4) + cf₅/(1 +r)^5 + cf₆/(1+r)^6
Hence,
cf₁, cf₂ cf₃ = 0 as the firm does not expect to pay dividend in the next three years
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