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hoa [83]
3 years ago
10

If a house was sold for $40,000 and the buyer obtained an FHA-insured mortgage loan for $38,500, how much money would the buyer

pay in discount points if the lender charged four points?
Business
1 answer:
Lelu [443]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

correct answer is $1,544 Explanation:

given data

sold = $40,000

mortgage loan = $38,500

solution

we know that here 1 discount point cost of buyer of loan = 1 %

so discount point = $38,500 × 1%  = $38,500 × 0.01 = $385

and

Points are always paid on the loan amount = $385 × 4

Points are always paid on the loan amount = $1,540 in discount points

so correct answer is $1,544

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Sean works in the human resource department of a well-known and highly respected maker of athletic equipment. He suggests that t
tester [92]

Answer: b. The company will be flooded with applications from individuals who are barely qualified.

Explanation:

By putting job advertisements on popular websites which are full of people looking for jobs, the company will attract people who are underqualified but apply anyway on the off chance that they are called for an interview. The company will incur costs sifting through the applications to find suitable candidates.

This will be a waste of the company's resources as those resources could have been directed at getting prospective employees that would be a better fit with the company and have the relevant qualifications. This could have been done by going to a recruiting agency for instance.

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following situations represents commodity-backed money? Choose one:
Marta_Voda [28]

Answer: A. Dollars are printed on paper and have value because the government says they have value.

Explanation: Commodity backed money is a situation where by the value of money is backed up by its purchasing power with which it can be traded with at request. The supply of many can not be more than the purchasing power the country holds.

3 0
3 years ago
Dividends-R-Us, Corp. is paying a dividend of $3 a share today. It is expected that the company will continue its policy of incr
leonid [27]

Answer:

Amount for each stock to be paid at maximum = $54

Explanation:

Using Dividend growth model, we have,

P_0 = \frac{D_1}{K_e - g}

Where P_0 = Expected price of share today

D_1 = Dividend to be paid at this year end

= D_0 + g

K_e = Required return on investment

g = Growth rate

Therefore,

D_1 = = $3 + 8% = $3.24

P_0 = \frac{3.24}{0.14-0.08}

P_0 = $54

Therefore, current price for this share or sock to be paid = $54 per share.

5 0
2 years ago
On July 1, Marin Inc. purchases 440 shares of its $5 par value common stock for the treasury at a cash price of $12 per share. J
GrogVix [38]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

On July 1

Treasury stock A/c Dr $5,280

        To Cash A/c $5,280

(Being purchase of treasury stock for cash is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Number of shares purchased × cash price per share

= 440 shares × $12

= $5,280

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

8 0
3 years ago
On December 29, 2005, BJ Co. sold an equity security investment that had been purchased on January 4, 2004. BJ owned no other ma
sineoko [7]

Answer:

AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery

No No

The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.

The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.

The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.

For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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