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zloy xaker [14]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following explains why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward? a) The interest-rate effect, the real-balances e

ffect, and the foreign purchases effect b) The investment effect, the real-purchases effect, and the foreign purchases effect c) The interest-rate effect, the real-purchases effect, and the foreign purchases effect d) The investment effect, the real-balances effect, and the international effect
Business
1 answer:
klio [65]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Real balance effect: This effect states the relationship between the price level and the purchasing power of the consumer. If there is a higher price level in an economy then this will reduce the purchasing power of the consumers and results in a fall in investment expenditure, net exports and consumption expenditure. That's why aggregate demand curve is slopes downward.

Interest-rate effect: This effect states the cost of borrowing funds with the price inflation in an economy. If there is a higher interest rate then most of the consumers cut down there borrowings activities which is one of the reason of downward sloping demand curve.

Foreign purchases effect: When there is a fall in the price level then as a result the price in the United states falls relative to the foreign prices. Hence, there is an increase in the U.S exports and decrease in the U.S imports.

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Individuals and business organizations that buy finished goods and resell them to make a profit without changing the physical ch
marysya [2.9K]

Answer: reseller markets

Explanation: In simple words, re-sellers refers to the buyers buying certain goods with the intention of selling them to anyone else. There are suppliers, retailers and distributors on the re-seller trade.

Re sellers can constrain their acquisitions to one product or company or offer a variety of brands and products.

These are the part of supply chain which makes their profit by adding value in the goods in form of providing any kind of service. For example the retailer provides commodities near the customer place hence charges extra for the time saving customer.

4 0
3 years ago
Catron Corporation is having liquidity problems, and as a result, it sells all of its outstanding stock to Lambert, Inc., for ca
lesya [120]

Answer:

The assets and liabilities acquired in a consolidation process are recorded at their fair market value. If the price paid during the consolidation process is lower than the fair market value of the assets - liabilities, then an ordinary gain on bargain purchase is recognized for the difference.

5 0
3 years ago
In the RST partnership, Ron's capital is $80,000, Stella's is $75,000, and Tiffany's is $50,000. They share income in a 3:2:1 ra
Setler [38]

Answer: Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Ron's capital = $80,000

Stella's = $75,000

Tiffany's = $50,000

Income sharing ratio = 3:2:1

Tiffany is retiring from the partnership

Amount paid to Tiffany = $56,000

Bonus = Amount paid to Tiffany - Tiffany's capital

          = $56,000 - $50,000

          = $6,000

Above bonus is 1/6th of goodwill.

Therefore, the total amount of goodwill recorded would be:

Goodwill = \frac{6,000}{\frac{1}{6} }

              = $36,000

7 0
4 years ago
Tami Strand’s regular hourly wage rate is $10, and she receives an hourly rate of $20 for work in excess of 40 hours. During a J
Simora [160]

Answer:

Gross earnings = $600

Net pay = $466.10

Explanation:

The computation of the gross earnings and the net pay is shown below:

Gross earnings

40 hours × $10 = $400

10 hours × $20 = $200

So, the total = $600

Since tami worked for 50 hours, 10 hours extra so $20 is paid for 1 hours extra. So, for 10 hours it would be $200

Net pay

Gross earnings                                     $600

less: federal income tax withholding   -$88

Less: FICA tax rate @7.65% on $600 - $45.90

Net pay                                                    $466.10

6 0
4 years ago
On November 27, the board of directors of Armstrong Company declared a $.50 per share dividend. The dividend is payable to share
Anna35 [415]

Answer:

On November 27

Debit Retained earnings $12,750

Credit Dividend payable $12,750

<em>(To record the dividend declared)</em>

On December 24

Debit Dividend payable $12,750

Credit Cash $12,750

<em>(To record dividend paid)  </em>

Explanation:

  • Dividends on gains on shares bought by the shareholders. They arise due to appreciation in share price and improvement in company's net income.
  • The dividend payable was calculated as $.5 x 25,500 shares = $12,750.
  • Dividends are usually paid out of retained earnings.
  • The dividend payable account is debited when payment is to be made.
4 0
3 years ago
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