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natita [175]
3 years ago
7

Write the inequality shown in the graph below:

Mathematics
1 answer:
slega [8]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

y\:

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to determine the equation of the boundary line.

The line has y-intercept of c=7 and slope m=-2.

The slope is given by y=mx+c.

We substitute the slope and intercept to get:

y=-2x+7.

Since the lower half plane is shaded, with the boundary being a dashed line, the required inequality is y\:

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As we know that probability value must always be between 0 and 1, it can not be greater than 1 and it can not be less than zero or any negative values

A. Number 175% = 1.75 which is greater than 1, so cannot be the value of probability

B.  The number 5.91 could not be a probability because it is larger than 1, to be the probability value the number must be greater than or equal to 0 and less than or equal to 1.

C. The number 0.66 can be a probability value because it lies in range 0 and 1.

D. The number 0.002 can be a probability because it is greater than zero and less than 1

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3 years ago
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y \geqslant 6 \\ x \geqslant y

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A jar of cookies contains 18 different types of cookies. Each kind is equally likely to be chosen. How many times must a cookie
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3 years ago
find the probability exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%. round
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

Hence, the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment round to the nearest tenth of a percent is:

31.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting exactly k successes in n trials is given by the probability mass function:



{\displaystyle P(k;n,p)=P(X=k)={\binom {n}{k}}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k}}

Where p denotes the probability of success.

We are given that  the probability of success if 50%.

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also form the question we have:

k=3 and n=6.

Hence the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials is:


{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(1-\dfrac{1}{2})^{6-3}}


{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}}

{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{6}

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{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)=20\times (\dfrac{1}{2})^6=\dfrac{5}{16}

In percentage the probability will be:

\dfrac{5}{16}\times 100=31.25\%=31.2\%



8 0
4 years ago
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