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KatRina [158]
3 years ago
9

How do I solve this?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Umnica [9.8K]3 years ago
5 0
\bf 4sin(\theta)+1=3\implies 4sin(\theta)=2\implies sin(\theta)=\cfrac{2}{4}
\\\\\\
sin(\theta)=\cfrac{1}{2}\implies sin^{-1}[sin(\theta)]=sin^{-1}\left( \cfrac{1}{2} \right)\implies \theta=sin^{-1}\left( \cfrac{1}{2} \right)
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Someone please help me!!!
Paha777 [63]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

\cos(51)  =  \frac{5.3}{x}

X = 5.3/0.6293

X = 8.4

4 0
3 years ago
1) -20= -4 - 6x<br><br> Ok so how will I be able to prove what this answer equals up too?
Effectus [21]

Answer:

x=\dfrac{8}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation is :

-20= -4 - 6x

We need to find the value of x. It can be done by collecting like terms togther as follows :

-20+4=-6x

⇒-16=6x

x=\dfrac{8}{3}

So, the solution of the given equation is 8/3.

8 0
4 years ago
Solve by applying the counting principle.
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply

8 0
3 years ago
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Consider the relation F defined by the equation y = 2x – 3, with domain {–1, 1, 2}. What is the range of F?
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

(-5,-1,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

You must substitute for <em>x</em>.

6 0
4 years ago
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A survey reports that the probability a person has blue eyes is 0.10. Assume that 4 people are randomly selected at Miramar Coll
marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

0.344 = 34.4% probability that at least 1 of them have blue eyes.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have blue eyes, or they have not. The probability of a person having blue eyes is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A survey reports that the probability a person has blue eyes is 0.10.

This means that p = 0.1

4 people are randomly selected at Miramar College

This means that n = 4

Find the probability that at least 1 of them have blue eyes.

Either none of them have blue eyes, or at least one do. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). So

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{4} = 0.656

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.656 = 0.344

0.344 = 34.4% probability that at least 1 of them have blue eyes.

4 0
3 years ago
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