Answer: First number 3 Second 18
Step-by-step explanation:
The angle to the left of angle 1 is 70, so angle 1 is equal to 180 - 70 - 70 which is 40,
Answer:
What was the problem?
Step-by-step explanation:
Oh ok , I G u e s s it is solved already.
<h3>C</h3>
f(x) does have an inverse function since it does pass the horizontal line test
