Answer:
Option which would likely appear on that budget will be:
Batch level costs: production setup.
Explanation:
Here the company uses activity based budgeting is a management accounting tool which new year budget is only seen by not considering the previous year records.
Activity based budgeting which is a budgeting method in which firstly the overhead costs are being calculated and the the budgets gets created.
Batch-level cost is a cost which is not associated with any given specific individual units but is associated with a group of units.
For example, to set up a production run the cost incurred is associated with the batch of goods that are produced subsequently.
Another example can be be procurement costs. The expenses associated with the procurement costs include the ordering of direct materials, paying suppliers and receiving goods.
Since all of the expenses are related to the orders placed numbers, they must be allocated not to an individual product but to group of unit.
<span>The main assumption that has to be true for Adam Smith's theories to be valid is that everyone is acting in a way that most benefits them and nobody else. Since resources are seen as limited, people are thought to act in ways that most benefit them and nobody else. These assumptions might be valid in many cases, but the concept of charity shows that they are not always the case, and the invisible hand might be guiding people at times, but not always.</span>
D I had this on a test and got it right
Answer:
The answer is: Compensation
Explanation:
Compensation is not only the money you earn as a salary for the job you perform. It is the total amount of monetary (salary) and non-monetary benefits provided to an employee by his employer.
Non-monetary benefits include perks which aren't part of the salary but have real value for the employees.
The problem for small companies is that their pockets aren't as deep as corporate pockets, so they can offer limited compensation (both monetary and non-monetary).
Answer:
MIRR -16.50%
They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.
A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR
If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.
Explanation:
WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%
<em>Cash inflow:</em>
Year 1 275000 336,886.825
Year 3 450000 481500
Year 4 450000 450000
Total 1,268,386.825
<em>Cash outflow:</em>
F= -2,500,000
Year 2 -125000 - 109, 179.841
Total 2,609,179.841
Now we can solve for MIRR:
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7BFV%20%5C%3A%20inflow%7D%7BPV%20%5C%3A%20outflow%7D%7D%20-1)
![MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C268%2C386.82%7D%7B2%2C609%2C179.84%7D%7D%20-1)
MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%
