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mestny [16]
3 years ago
9

A perfectly elastic demand function A. shows that a consumer is willing to pay any amount for the product. B. has a marginal rev

enue that is always decreasing. C. is characteristic of an individual firm operating in a perfectly competitive market. D. shows that the individual firm can increase sales by lowering the price of output.
Business
1 answer:
Svet_ta [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C. is characteristic of an individual firm operating in a perfectly competitive market.

Explanation:

Demand is perfectly elastic if the coefficient of elasticity is infinite. It means thay consumers would only buy at one price. Once that price changes, demand falls to zero.

A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply.

If a seller decides to increase the price of his good in a perfect competition, demand falls to zero and reducing price woild lead to losses.

I hope my answer helps you

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This is one of the questions I have and I have no idea what they might be
Westkost [7]

Answer:

1) You get what you get and don't throw a fit?

2)Be patient???

I hope this helps TwT

6 0
2 years ago
Employees who are paid a portion of the profit from the sale of a product or service are paid on a(n) _____ basis. salary commis
Tasya [4]

Answer:

The right answer to complete the sentence above is "sales profits and duration of work hours"

<em> Employees who are paid part of the profits from the sale of products or services are paid based on </em><em>sales profits and the duration of work hours</em><em>. commission for hourly contract pay</em>

<em />

Explanation:

Because the salary earned by the employees is from the hourly duration they work. And the profits from the sale of products also form part of the duration of working hours. The longer the duration of work hours, the more likely the product is sold. So the benefits are based on sales profits and the duration of work hours.

#AnswerForTrees

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If total liabilities decreased by $30,000 and stockholders' equity decreased by $10,000 during a period of time, then total asse
boyakko [2]

Answer:

C) $40.000 Decrease

Explanation:

The accounting equation states that: Assets = Liabilities + Equity, so in this case the Assets must decrease in the same amount that change the other side of the equation, $40.000.

4 0
2 years ago
For the coming year, Belton Company estimates fixed costs of $60,000, the unit variable cost of $25, and the unit selling price
NeTakaya

Answer:

1. Break even point in units = 2,400 units

2. Sales required = 6,400 units

3. Operating income = $140,000

Explanation:

Given:

Fixed costs = $60,000

Variable cost =$25 per unit

Selling price = $50 per unit

Computation:

1. Break-even point in units of sales.

Contribution per unit = sales - VC

Contribution per unit = $50 - $25

Contribution per unit = $25

Break even point in units = Fixed costs / Contribution per unit

Break even point in units = $60,000 / $25

Break even point in units = 2400 units

2. Unit sales required to realize operating income = $100,000

Sales required = (Fixed costs + Operating income) / Contribution per unit

Sales required = ($60,000 + $100,000) / $25

Sales required = 6400 units

3. Operating income if sales total = $400,000

Contribution margin = [$25/ $50]100 = 50%

Operating income = Contribution margin - Fixed costs

Operating income = ($400,000 × 50%) - $60,000

Operating income = $140,000

5 0
3 years ago
Litton Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that the b
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,250,000 / 40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $31.25 per machine hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 31.25*4,780

Allocated MOH= $149,375

<u>Finally, the over/under allocation:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 141,800 - 149,375

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

6 0
3 years ago
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