Answer:
$4.67 per share
Explanation:
The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:
= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)
where,
Total income is $50,000
Outstanding shares is 10,000
And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations
Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share
= 1,000 × $6
= $6,000
And,
Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price
= $6,000 ÷ $20
= 300
Therefore,
Diluted shares is
= Options issued - value of options
= 1,000 - 300
= 700
So Diluted Earnings per share is
= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)
= $4.67 per share
Answer: The answers are explained below.
Explanation:
• Cost of debt: The cost of debt is the interest rate that a company is charged on its debts. It is the interest paid on bonds, loans etc. The cost of debt is usually the before-tax cost of a debt.
• Cost of equity: The cost of equity is the return a firm pays to its equity investors e.g shareholders in order to reward them for the risk taken by investing their capital. Companies need capital to operate and grow hence, individuals and organizations who provide funds to such companies are rewarded.
• After tax WACC: The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is a firm's combined cost of capital including preferred shares, common shares, and debt after the deduction of tax.
• Equity Beta: It measures the sensitivity of the stock price to changes in market. Equity Beta is also called levered beta.
• Asset beta: It is the beta of a firm without the effect of debt. It is a company's volatility of returns without its indebtedness.
• Pure play comparable: The pure play comparable is the taking of the beta estimate of another company that is comparable and in same line of business.
• Certainty equivalent: It is the guaranteed return that an individual would take now, rather than awaiting a higher but uncertain return later in the future.
Answer:
it's the theory that the completion of college indicates do employers that a job applicant is intelligent and hard-working
Answer:
Case 1 = $9,420
Case 2 = 0
Explanation:
Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-
Case 1
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= $41,640 - $32,220
= $9,420
Case 2
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= 91,800 - $102,220
= 0
Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.
It’s C because it’s balanced
