Please explain better in comments
Buying is the highest risk investment because the outcome is unknown and you have to take a gamble.
Answer:
Voluntary consent:
In the current case there exists an absence of the voluntary consent with respect to Mr Jerome because of over the top impact and coercion. Mr Jerome relies totally upon Mr Philip because of which the last could impact him. Mr Jerome can show that he didn't genuinely consent to the agreement so he can either hold fast to the agreement or pull back. Mr Philip had a great deal of impact over the old Mr Jerome and consequently could beat his free will. Under the current conditions the agreement was gone into under an excessive amount of impact and is voidable.
Answer:
Results are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Inflation rate= 7%
Real rate of return= 10%
Present value (PV)= $10,000
Number of periods (n)= 10 years
<u>The real rate of return incorporates the effect of the inflation rate. Therefore, the nominal rate of return:</u>
Nominal rate of return= 0.1 + 0.07= 17%
<u>To calculate the Future Value, we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1 + i)^n
FV= 10,000*(1.17^10)
FV= $48,068.28
This is the n<u>ominal valu</u>e received after ten years.
<u>If Sally wants to determine the real value of the investment after 10 years, we must use the real rate of return:</u>
<u></u>
FV= 10,000*(1.1^10)
FV=$25,937.42
Answer:
D) Original cost.
Explanation:
When the company uses the lower of cost or market method, it should assign value to its inventory by calculating the middle figure between replacement cost or net realizable value, and net realizable value - normal profit.
In this case, the market value must be either the replacement cost or the net realizable value, but both values are the highest. Since the original cost is below the market value, but above the net realizable value - normal profit, the inventory must be valued at the original cost.