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Lyrx [107]
3 years ago
11

Can someone help me please ???????

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

d=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor d^2 - 2d - 8 into (d-4)(d+2)

Move -2/d+2 onto the other side, changing it into 2/d+2.

\frac{-3d}{(d-4)(d+2)} +\frac{3}{d-4}+\frac{2}{d+2} = 0

Let the empty side equal zero.

Add 3/d-4 and 2/d+2

\frac{5d-2}{(d+2)(d-4)}

Then add that to -3d.

\frac{2d-2}{(d+2)(d+4)}

Multiply 0 by d+2 and d-4 to get 2d-2 by itself.

2d=2

d=1

I can't edit the equation, but it's d-4 althroughout the question. Sorry for being so slow.

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