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velikii [3]
4 years ago
5

Question refers to the excerpt below. "The long trial has proved that the object for which Spain has waged the war cannot be att

ained. The fire of insurrection may flame or may smolder with varying seasons, but it has not been, and it is plain that it cannot be, extinguished by present methods. The only hope of relief and repose from a condition which can no longer be endured is the enforced pacification of Cuba. In the name of humanity, in the name of civilization, in behalf of endangered American interests which give us the right and the duty to speak and to act, the war in Cuba must stop. In view of these facts and of these considerations, I ask the Congress to authorize and empower the President to take measures to secure a full and final termination of hostilities between the government of Spain and the people of Cuba, and to secure in the island the establishment of a stable government, capable of maintaining order and observing its international obligations, insuring peace and tranquillity and the security of its citizens as well as our own, and to use the military and naval forces of the United States as may be necessary for these purposes."—President William McKinley, 1898 What constitutional issue arose in the aftermath of the war?
History
1 answer:
NARA [144]4 years ago
6 0
As a result of the Spanish American War, the US emerged as a superpower that suddenly acquired many territorial processions as victors. The problem was the US just fought a war so that the people of Cuba could be free from a colonial power and now the US was becoming a colonial power, taking possession of Spain’s holdings in places like Guam, Puerto Rico and the Philippines. Many people called this hypocrisy.
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On the other hand, wartime industry such as the naval suppliers or the elements of the textile industry which made uniforms experienced a boost, and unemployment fell as Britain struggled to find enough men for the army, a situation which would cause them to hire German soldiers. British ‘privateers’ experienced as much success preying on enemy merchant ships as almost any of their opponents.

The effects on trade were also short term, as British trade with the new USA rose to the same levels as trade with them in colonial form by 1785, and by 1792 trade between Britain and Europe had doubled. Additionally, while Britain gained an even larger national debt, they were in a position to live with it and there were no financially motivated rebellions like those of France.

Indeed, Britain was able to support several armies during the Napoleonic wars (and even field its own instead of just paying for other peoples). It's been said that Britain was even right to lose the war because of the economic benefits.

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C. constantine is the correct answer
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