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Oxana [17]
3 years ago
6

Assume that TarMart purchased equipment at the beginning of fiscal year 2016 for $480,000 cash. The equipment had an estimated u

seful life of 8 years and a residual value of $30,000.
1. What would depreciation expense be for year 3 under the straight-line method?
2. What would depreciation expense be for year 3 under the double-declining balance method?
3. What is the first year in which depreciation expense under the straight-line method is higher than under the declining balance method?
4. Assume TarMart uses the straight-line depreciation method for its equipment. Also assume that at fiscal year-end 2020, TarMart sold the equipment purchased at the beginning of fiscal year 2016 for $200,000 cash. Prepare the journal entry to record the sale of the equipment at year-end 2020.
Business
1 answer:
vovikov84 [41]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1. What would depreciation expense be for year 3 under the straight-line method?

= ($480,000 - $30,000) / 8 = $56,250

same depreciation expense for every year

2. What would depreciation expense be for year 3 under the double-declining balance method?

depreciation year 1 = 2 x 1/8 x $480,000 = $120,000

depreciation year 2 = 2 x 1/8 x $360,000 = $90,000

depreciation year 3 = 2 x 1/8 x $270,000 = $67,500

3. What is the first year in which depreciation expense under the straight-line method is higher than under the declining balance method?

under double declining method

depreciation year 4 = 2 x 1/8 x $202,500 = $50,625

In year 4, depreciation expense wil be higher using the straight line method.

4. Assume TarMart uses the straight-line depreciation method for its equipment. Also assume that at fiscal year-end 2020, TarMart sold the equipment purchased at the beginning of fiscal year 2016 for $200,000 cash. Prepare the journal entry to record the sale of the equipment at year-end 2020.

Dr Cash 200,000

Dr Accumulated depreciation - equipment 225,000

Dr Loss on sale of equipment 55,000

    Cr Equipment 480,000

Explanation:

purchase cost $480,000

useful life 8 years

salvage value $30,000

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Answer:

Management by exception

Explanation:

This is a practice of examining the financial as well as operational results of a business and bringing to management only those differences that show a significant difference between the budgeted and actual amounts. This allows managers to focus on the highly important variances that can affect the growth and profitability of a company significantly. This concept, can however be fine-tuned where small variances are shown but to low-level managers whilst the senior managers will look at the large variances.

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Using a $ sign before a column label ________.
Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

The alignment of the choices are off but here's the explanation for solving this question below;

Explanation:

Using a $ sign before a column label, keeps the reference to column fixed,

but allows the row reference to change. Generally, putting a dollar sign ($) before a column label or row label  puts an absolute reference to that respective column or row while keeping the other changing. For example;

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A corporation makes an investment of $20,000 that will provide the following cash flows after the corresponding amounts of time:
s344n2d4d5 [400]

A) The company should not invest in the provided project due to the negative NPV of the project.

B) The NPV of the project comes out to be (286).

<h3>What is NPV?</h3>

NPV is an abbreviated form of Net present value and computed by deducting the cash outflows from cash inflows at the present value.

Given values:

Cash flow of year 1: $10,000

Cash flow of year 2: $10,000

Cash flow of year 3: $2,000

Cash outflow (cost of investment) =$20,000

Step-1 Computation of PV of cash inflows of every year:

PV of year 1 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 1

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 1

                    = $10,000 X 0.934579

                    = $9,346

PV of year 2 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 2

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $10,000 X 0.873438

                    = $8,735

PV of year 3= Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 3

                   = $2,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $2,000 X 0.816297

                    =$1,633

Step-2 Computation of total amount of PV of cash inflows:

\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows = \rm\ PV \rm\  of \rm\  year \rm\  1 + \rm\  PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 2 + \rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 3\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$9,346 + \$8,735 + \$1,633\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$19,714

Step-3 Computation of NPV:

\rm\ NPV=\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows- \rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ investment\\\rm\ NPV=\$19,714-\$20,000\\\rm\ NPV=\$ (286)

Therefore, the NPV comes out to be a negative amount of 286, and hence, the company should not accept the project.

Learn more about the net present value in the related link:

brainly.com/question/14015430

#SPJ1

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