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alekssr [168]
3 years ago
14

Is ∆JKL ≅ ∆KJM ? Justify your answer below.

Mathematics
2 answers:
poizon [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

__                               __

KL is congruent to JM

<K is congruent to <J

<M is congruent to <L

KatRina [158]3 years ago
4 0

Answer : Yes, ΔJKL ≅ ΔKJM

Step-by-step explanation :

The following combinations of the congruent triangle facts  will be sufficient to prove triangles congruent.

The combinations are:

(1) SSS (side-side-side) : If three sides of a triangle are congruent to three sides of another triangle then the triangles are congruent.

(2) SAS (side-angle-side) : If two sides and included angle of a triangle are congruent to another triangle then the triangles are congruent.

(3) ASA (angle-side-angle) : If two angles and included side of a triangle are congruent to another triangle then the triangles are congruent.

(4) RHS (right angle-hypotenuse-side) : If the hypotenuse and leg of one right triangle are congruent to the corresponding parts of another right triangle, the right triangles are congruent.

As we are given two triangles.

Prove : ΔJKL ≅ ΔKJM

As,

Side LK = Side MJ    (side)

Side KJ = Side JK     (common side)

∠K = ∠J                     (angle)

That means, in this two sides and an angle of a triangle are equal to another triangle then the triangles are congruent.

So, ΔJKL ≅ ΔKJM  (By SAS congruency)

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