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Alekssandra [29.7K]
4 years ago
12

Edmonton Pools manufactures swimming pool equipment. Edmonton estimates total manufacturing overhead costs next year to be $ 1,4

00,000. Edmonton also estimates it will use 50,000 direct labor hours and incur $ 1,000,000 of direct labor cost next year. In​ addition, the machines are expected to be run for 40,000 hours. Compute the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate for next year under the following independent​ situations:
(1) Assume that the company uses direct labor hours as its manufacturing overhead allocation base.
(2) Assume that the company uses direct labor cost as its manufacturing overhead allocation base.
(3) Assume that the company uses machine hours as its manufacturing overhead allocation base.
Business
1 answer:
Dmitriy789 [7]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1. $28 per Direct Labor Hour

2. 140% of Direct Labor Cost

3. $35 per Machine Hour

Explanation:

(1) Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate:

= Total estimated amount of a Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Total estimated Direct Labor Hours

= $1,400,000 ÷ 50,000

= $28 per Direct Labor Hour

(2) Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate:

= (Total estimated amount of a Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Total estimated Direct Labor Cost) × 100

= ($1,400,000 ÷ $1,000,000) × 100

= 140% of Direct Labor Cost

(3) Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate:

= Total estimated amount of a Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Total estimated Machine Hours

= $1,400,000 ÷ 40,000

= $35 per Machine Hour

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Based on the coordinates of point x and those of point y on the linear production possibilities curve, the opportunity cost of producing one watch is 2 fewer clocks.

<h3>What is the opportunity cost of producing one watch?</h3>

The opportunity cost of producing one watch is the number of clocks that needs to be given up per watch.

This will therefore be the slope of the linear production possibilities curve which can be found as:

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This means that for every watch produced, there will be 2 clocks that will be foregone to make that watch.

In conclusion, the opportunity cost is 2 clocks.

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Answer: <em>Option (D) is correct.</em>

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