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miss Akunina [59]
2 years ago
7

What is 11 2/3 as an improper fraction?

Mathematics
2 answers:
natta225 [31]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

35/3 because 3×11+2 that's the numerator

erik [133]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:yes

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the area of the circle... Round to the nearest tenth and include units in your answer
Fantom [35]

Answer:

452.4 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula for the area of a circle is A = pi r^2

4 0
3 years ago
Isaac invested $460 in an account paying an interest rate of 2.4% compounded daily. Assuming no deposits or withdrawals are made
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

t =17 years

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for interest

A = P(1+ r/n)^ nt

where a is the amount in the account , p is the principal, r is the rate, n is the number of times compounded per year and t is the time in years

Substituting in what we know

690 = 460 ( 1+ .024/365)^ 365t

690/460 = ( 1+ .024/365)^ 365t

1.5 = ( 1+ .024/365)^ 365t

Taking the log of each side

log(1.5) = 365t log( 1+ .024/365))

Dividing each side by( 1+ .024/365)

log(1.5)/ log( 1+ .024/365) = 365t

divide each side by 365

1/365 log(1.5)/ log( 1+ .024/365)  =t

t =16.8949

To the nearest year

t =17

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
About 8% of the U.S. population catches the flu each season. Assuming everyone has equal probability of catching the flu, about
avanturin [10]

Answer:

  • <u>The odds are 2 : 23, or about 0.09 :  1 (0.09 to 1).</u>

Explanation:

The <em>odds </em>of an event is the ratio of occurrence to non-occurrence of the event.

When you know the <em>probability</em> of an event, then you can calculate the odds by dividing the probability of occurence by the probability of non-occurrence.

Calling p the probability that an event will happen, 1 - p is the probability that it will not happen and the odds will be:

  • Odds = p / ( 1 - p)

You have p = 8% = 0.08, and 1 - p = 1 -0.08 = 0.92.

Therefore:

  • Odds = 0.08 / 0.92 = 8 : 92 = 2 : 23 ≈ 0.09 : 1 (0.09 to 1)

8 0
2 years ago
Suppose that 16 inches of wire costs 48 cents.
padilas [110]
Let’s divide 48 by 16 to see how many cents per inch of wire. 48/16=3 so it costs 3 cents per inch of wire. now all we have to do is multiply 47 by 3, and you will get 141 cents, or $1.41.
7 0
2 years ago
Can someone help me on this? pls
vivado [14]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

If this helped, please mark me as brainliest.

6 0
2 years ago
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