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Mkey [24]
3 years ago
9

1. Suppose the amount of premium leather decreases from 180 to 150 a. Does the shadow price change? Why or why not? b. If possib

le, determine the change in value of the objective function in this situation. c. Does the optimal solution change? Explain why or why not.
Business
2 answers:
kkurt [141]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation: A. Shadow price has not changed because Shadow price show value of a commodity without considering final cost.

B. Change in value 180 - 150/180 X 100 = 16.7

C. The optimal solution didn't change because the product price went from it highest profit 180 to it's least cost 150

grin007 [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer below in an attachment

Download docx
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A corporation makes an investment of $20,000 that will provide the following cash flows after the corresponding amounts of time:
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A) The company should not invest in the provided project due to the negative NPV of the project.

B) The NPV of the project comes out to be (286).

<h3>What is NPV?</h3>

NPV is an abbreviated form of Net present value and computed by deducting the cash outflows from cash inflows at the present value.

Given values:

Cash flow of year 1: $10,000

Cash flow of year 2: $10,000

Cash flow of year 3: $2,000

Cash outflow (cost of investment) =$20,000

Step-1 Computation of PV of cash inflows of every year:

PV of year 1 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 1

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 1

                    = $10,000 X 0.934579

                    = $9,346

PV of year 2 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 2

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $10,000 X 0.873438

                    = $8,735

PV of year 3= Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 3

                   = $2,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $2,000 X 0.816297

                    =$1,633

Step-2 Computation of total amount of PV of cash inflows:

\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows = \rm\ PV \rm\  of \rm\  year \rm\  1 + \rm\  PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 2 + \rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 3\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$9,346 + \$8,735 + \$1,633\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$19,714

Step-3 Computation of NPV:

\rm\ NPV=\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows- \rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ investment\\\rm\ NPV=\$19,714-\$20,000\\\rm\ NPV=\$ (286)

Therefore, the NPV comes out to be a negative amount of 286, and hence, the company should not accept the project.

Learn more about the net present value in the related link:

brainly.com/question/14015430

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2 years ago
According to the price equation, the actual price is the list price less blank______, plus extra fees.
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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Scrumptious Snacks Inc. manufactures three types of snack foods: tortilla chips, potato chips, and pretzels. The company has bud
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Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the number of processing hours:</u>

Processing hours= (0.25*3,000) + (0.1*6,000) + (0.3*3,500)

Processing hours= 750 + 600 + 1,050

Processing hours= 2,400

<u>Now, we can calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 207,000 / 2,400

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate=$86.25 per processing hour

<u>To allocate overhead, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Tortilla chips= 86.25*75= 64,687.5

Potato chips= 600*86.25= 51,750

Pretzels= 86.25*1,050= 90,562.5

<u>Finally, the unitary cost:</u>

Tortilla chips= 64,687.5 / 3,000= $21.56

Potato chips= 51,750 / 6,000= $8.63

Pretzels= 90,562.5 / 3,500= $25.88

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